« first day (2399 days earlier)      last day (2616 days later) » 

4:09 PM
@DanielFischer Do you have any new thoughts about what we could possibly be overlooking about the parameter $a$? The $2 \pi$ restriction seems to apply to the entire family of infinite series.
 
Hey guys - having trouble with this problem:
0
Q: Prove that the ring $R$ has a left and right identity - missing a key detail?

ALannisterSuppose that $R$ is a finite non-zero ring without zero divisors, and denote $R^{*}=R\setminus \{0 \}$. Consider the action of the multiplicative semigroup $R^{*}$ on itself by left translation; i.e., for $x \in R^{*}$, we have $x.y = xy$ by definition. I just showed that $R^{*}$ acts on $R^{*}$...

 
@RandomVariable No, sorry. Haven't yet found the time to think about it more than cursorily.
 
What was the numerical evidence for said restriction? @RandomVariable
 
NM - figured it out.
 
4:26 PM
@Semiclassical Numerical approximations for the sums using Wolfram Alpha for values of $a$ greater than $2 \pi$. But the formulas themselves suggest that a restriction of some sort is needed since they don't make sense for large $a$.
 
Guys any idea about this situation - "I want to read the book online from google books but for me internet service will not be there tomorrow , any technique how i can access the pages while offline..."
 
I'm not optimistic there's a workaround for that.
 
Okay, didn't figure it out. Showed something similar, but not exactly. But, that question is now deleted. Need to post a new one...
 
4:48 PM
@Vrouvrou j'ai deja prouve ici:
yesterday, by DHMO
Let me summarize:
Let $d \in D$ and $f = d(d,B) - d(d,A)$. $f > 0$ by definition.
consider $Y$ an open-ball centered at $d$ with radius $\frac f 2$
we need to prove that $Y \subseteq D$
let $y \in Y$
we need to prove that $d(y,B) > d(y,A)$
so $d(y,A) < d(d,A) + d(d,y) < d(d,A) + \frac f 2 = d(d,B) - \frac f 2 < d(d,B) - d(d,y) < d(y,B)$
QED
@Mahmoud congratulations!
> Every increasing sequence in the long line converges to a limit.
What the hell
I'm quite interest in knowing that $(n,\sin n)$ converges to
 
Ugh, it's too early in the day for me to be feeling tired.
 
Actually, I've figured it out.
It converges to $(\omega,0)$.
now it's getting interesting
 
5:03 PM
New question:
0
Q: Need to prove that a given nonzero ring $R$ with no zero divisors has both left and right identity

ALannisterLet $R$ be a finite non-zero ring without zero divisors. Denote $R^{*}=R \setminus \{0\}$. Consider the action of the multiplicative semigroup $R^{*}$ on itseslf by left translation - i.e., for $x \in R^{*}$, we have $x.y = xy$ by definition. I already proved that $R^{*}$ acts on $R^{*}$ by bije...

 
@Vrouvrou au revoir
 
Probably far too trivial a thought, but $1$ is always in $R^{ * }$ so it's always in the image of $R^{ * }$ acting on $R^{ * }$ from right or left.
 
@DHMO but i don't understand $d(d,A) + \frac f 2 = d(d,B) - \frac f 2 < d(d,B) - d(d,y) < d(y,B)$
 
But if that map is a bijection, doesn't that imply that there's always a preimage of 1 w/r/t that mapping and therefore inverses? @ALannister
 
$1$ would already have to be in $R^{*}$
I don't think there's any guarantee of that
 
5:11 PM
Isn't $R^{ * }$ just everything in $R$ except $0$?
 
It's not the real numbers, it's a ring.
 
Sure, but every ring has a multiplicative identity. (that's what I mean by 1.)
 
No it doesn't!!
Every ring is associative under multiplication and that's it.
 
Per Wikipedia, one of the properties of a ring is that it's "a monoid under multiplication"
 
It depends on definition
 
5:13 PM
Ugh, I was wondering if that's what was going on.
 
sighs I suppose there is some argument among algebraists about that. But, as far as I'm concerned, to most human people, a ring is a semigroup under multiplication, not a monoid.
 
Though some people call a ring without multiplicative identity, a "rng"
whoa
 
looks all innocent
 
Hah.
 
I was on a different tab when that was up, so I'm in the dark.
Aaanyways.
 
5:14 PM
Good thing I only really work on groups and not rings :P
 
Meh. Jessy was naughty.
 
I guess the point is that it's straightforward for rings with identity.
 
Yes, it would be.
Ugh. Only 4 people have even looked at my question!! I wanted to get this done this afternoon, but I guess that's not going to happen now.
I have to get a shower and go get ready for class.
 
5:33 PM
@Balarka is it true that every compact manifold is a CW-complex? We saw in class that this works for compact surfaces so I was wondering about the general case. I think you can cover it with a finite number of open $n$-balls and then do some fiddling with the borders where they overlap but I'm not sure how to formalize this last part (assuming it's correct)
 
5:45 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Homotopy equivalent to, yes. Homeomorphic to, open.
For smooth manifolds you're always triangulable so necessarily homeomorphic to a CW complex. But there are nasty topological 4-manifolds where things could go wrong.
 
Mike already answered to let me just say that for the fact upto homotopy equivalence you need the nerve theorem, once you get a good cover on your manifold (which is not too hard).
 
You certainly don't need that. Just embed in R^N and take a regular neighborhood and give that a triangulation.
 
Ok, but then you need to prove that spaces dominated by simplicial complexes are simplicial. Is that obvious?
 
whenever you link the nlab I have to think carefully whether you're serious or trolling
thanks for the answers by the way @Mika @Balarka
 
heh, that's one of the pages i found useful because it states the theorem
 
6:00 PM
@BalarkaSen "Homotopy type of"!
 
Also, my favorite proof that smooth manifolds are homeomorphic to CW complexes is through Morse theory @Alessandro. As a reference, look at the torus picture in wikipedia. For intro, there's a chapter in G&P but it doesn't tell you much.
@MikeMiller Ahh, sorry.
Out of curiosity, is dimension 4 the only place where things are open? I think there are 11 dimensional non-smoothable manifolds too (Kervaire manifold?); do we know if that's triangulable?
 
There are non-triangulable manifolds in every dimension greater than 5 (Galewski-Stern; independently Matsumoto; the final step by Manolescu), and plenty of non-smoothable manifolds. But we nonetheless still get CW structures in all dimensions other than 4.
This is all that Kirby-Siebenmann stuff I don't know well.
 
Weird!
 
Ah, this has become the geometric topology room.
 
I don't know anything about geometric topology
 
6:14 PM
Didn't you just tell me that's irritating? :)
 
Fine, I know a lot of geometric topology.
 
@BalarkaSen Ah, I see, maybe I'll read it at some point. Today the professor suggested us to look at Hatcher's book for the proofs of some facts we don't have the time to prove in this course so I guess I have no choice but to read it :P
 
Poor Alessandro.
Hatcher is usually a graduate course in the US ...
 
On the more serious note I was just contradicting Ted's statement :) This has become a room about geometry/topology though
 
No, there's still analysis and algebra ... and ugh foundations.
 
6:17 PM
@Ted we're not following the book, he just suggested it as a reference for a couple of theorems
 
Hey everyone!
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Hatcher is great, I encourage reading it.
 
Why isn't Daminark in class?
 
I don't have class until 3
 
I forget, did you two both say you were sophomores?
 
6:18 PM
Weird schedule.
 
You and Eric (?)
 
in college
 
Yeah
 
Hmm, who's Eric?
 
But yeah basically I've got compsci 9:30-10:30, analysis 10:30-11:30, and Classics 3:00-4:30
 
6:21 PM
He's UC. He doesn't want to tell me what year he is.
I just want to figure out if he's liable to know someone who graduated there last year, Redmond.
 
It's confidential
Lol
 
We had another chat person who graduated Berkeley last year. I actually met him for coffee when I was up there.
 
Who's that?
 
Andrew, right?
I'm really bad with names.
 
Oh, and we have a current chat person at Berkeley, although he's not been here in a few weeks.
I'm forgetting names, too, @MikeM. The guy a while ago was Anthony.
 
6:23 PM
That's who I was looking for.
 
He was in Ken Ribet's graduate algebra, but was more of an applied guy.
 
Ah, yeah, I remember Anthony
 
Interesting: I'd never before heard of a Gauduchon manifold. But I just a few minutes ago got an email announcing a geometry conference in Rome on March 10, and one of the speakers is ... Gauduchon.
 
hah, nice coincidence
 
Blah, why is my brain not working
 
6:35 PM
shrug
 
Hi chat
 
Salut, @Astyx.
 
What's up ?
 
Are you going? @Ted
 
6:40 PM
Nah. Of course not. :)
Hi, DogAteMy
 
Late lunch today, DogAteMy?
 
@DanielFischer Until I know what the issue is, I'm not going to be confident in any result I get using contour integration except in simple cases. That's what bothers me the most about this.
 
7:02 PM
Is it nonstandard to define CW-complexes as having a finite number of $n$-cells for every $n$? Because that's included in the definition we saw in class but it doesn't seem to be case on wiki and Hatcher
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Yes, that's nonstandard and unreasonable.
 
I mean then infinite degree covers of most CW complexes aren't CW complex.
 
Hm, I just checked and they are called finite CW complexes in the professor's notes, but I'm quite sure they where never called finite in class (or at least I never wrote it and I don't remember it)
 
Finite CW complexes are usually the ones which have finite dimension too.
I.e., no cells after some dimension
 
@Alessandro You should check May's book :P
Jk
 
7:08 PM
Grr
 
@RandomVariable There's a problem letting $y \to \infty$. $\lvert J_k(z)\rvert$ grows like $\lvert z\rvert^{-1/2}\exp (\lvert \operatorname{Im} z\rvert)$, so replacing $\cot (\pi z)$ with $\pm i$ needs more justification than just uniform convergence. I don't see why that should work for small $a$ and stop working for $a \geqslant 2\pi$, though, but maybe looking in detail at the Bessel functions would reveal it.
 
Lol May's actually teaching algebraic topology next quarter
 
@BalarkaSen infinite dimensional complexes are fine, just not with an infinite amount of cells apparently. I don't know why we're using this definition then
What's May's book?
 
Like, I want to sit in at least for a bit just to see how it goes
He'll prob use Hatcher though
 
@AlessandroCodenotti He has a book on algebraic topology too
 
7:11 PM
concise course in algebraic topology J.P. May
 
My impression is that it's more categories-oriented
 
"A Concise Course in Algebraic Topology"
 
it's available for free online
 
So is Hatcher's, @Eric!
 
I've found Hatcher to be much more palatable too
 
7:13 PM
we're cool then :D
 
Oh, wait, the Hawaiian earring is not the same as a countable wedge of circles, wtf topology why do you do this weird things all the time
 
@Alessandro The earring is not locally simply connected, is the point
A small neighborhood of the bad point looks like... the earring itself
 
@BalarkaSen locally means that every point has a simply connected neighbourhood?
 
@DanielFischer So additional justification is needed for replacing $\cot(\pi z)$ with $\pm i$ because the magnitude of $J_{k}(z)$ does not remain bounded as $\text{Im}(z) \to \pm \infty$?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Ya, the space admits a basis of s.c. open sets. It's also not semilocally simply connected, which says every point has a neighborhood such that any loop inside it is nullhomotopic inside the whole space.
Aka, there's a neighborhood $U$ around any $p \in X$ such that $i_* : \pi_1(U) \to \pi_1(X)$ is the zero map.
The latter's weaker than the former of course.
 
7:22 PM
I found out just today what $\pi_1(X)$ is, but I don't know what $i_*$ is so your last message went a bit over my head, but I get the point
does the example of a semilocally s.c. but not locally s.c. space have a name to make googling easier?
 
Ah, the point is any map $f : (X, x_0) \to (Y, y_0)$ between based topological spaces (aka $f(x_0) = y_0$) gives a map $f_*: \pi_1(X, x_0) \to \pi_1(Y, y_0)$ (how?). $i$ is the inclusion $U \to X$, and $i_*$ is the map induced from that
 
Hi @Andrea it's nice to see another Italian around here once in a while!
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Let $H$ be the earring and look at $H \times [0,1]/H \times 0$.
Do you see why this is an example?
Also, I don't know a name for such spaces.
 
@BalarkaSen well if I have a path $\alpha:[0,1]\to X$ starting and ending at $x_0$ then $f\circ\alpha$ is a path in $Y$ starting and ending at $y_0$
 
That's it, yep.
Well you also have to check that it's well defined upto homotopy but it's the same argument
 
7:27 PM
@RandomVariable Yes. We have $$I(y) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f_y(x)g_y(x)\,dx$$ with $g_y$ uniformly converging to $0$. To conclude $I(y) \to 0$ for $y\to \infty$, we need more. If the $f_y$ were dominated by an integrable function, that would suffice. But for $f_y(x) = J_k(x+iy)/(x+iy)$, we are very far from being able to appeal to the dominated convergence theorem.
 
@BalarkaSen Not sure, I'll think about it after dinner
 
It looks like a cone with base H
 
Sure thing. In general understand how $X \times [0, 1]/X \times 0$ looks upto homotopy equivalence (the space is also denoted as $CX$ - C stands for ...?)
 
I've seen in Hatcher that this is called a suspension if you quotient both ends
 
That's true
 
7:35 PM
@DanielFischer What's $g_{y}(x)$ here? I thought we're talking about the top and bottom of the contour where $\cot(\pi z)$ is converging uniformly to $\mp i$ as $\text{Im}(z) \to \pm \infty$.
 
@RandomVariable $g_y(x) = \cot (\pi(x+iy)) + i$
 
ok, gotta go
 
Hello, just want to confirm, I believe that $Aut_\mathbb {Q} \mathbb {Q} (\sqrt 2, \sqrt 3, \sqrt5)$ is $\mathbb {Z}_2 \times \mathbb {Z}_2 \times \mathbb {Z}_2$ since all automorphisms except the identity have order 2
 
@DanielFischer I wasn't even thinking about the ramifications of $J_{k}(z)$ not being bounded as $\text{Im}(z) \pm \infty$. Thanks for pointing that out. Would looking more closely at $J_{k}(az) \cot(\pi z)$ perhaps reveal something?
 
7:51 PM
@HarryEvans Yes
 
thanks @Krijn
 
@RandomVariable Maybe. But I don't know enough about Bessel functions to make an educated guess.
 
8:03 PM
hi
i have such a headache
 
@PVAL-inactive Fibered knots almost always have infinitely many fiberings right?
 
@DanielFischer Will we likely have to appeal to something other than the DCT, like the uniform convergence of the integral?
 
@RandomVariable I don't think the integrals converge uniformly. It's going to be a delicate argument.
 
@DanielFischer off-topic, but is there any difference between malen and abmalen ?
 
oh and hey @Akiva
umm in a bit I want to talk to you about what we were talking about last nightr
 
8:20 PM
@LeGrandDODOM Yes, "abmalen" means you have a source/model (could be a picture, could be a bowl of fruit, a human) that you look at while you paint it (and you paint it much like it really looks). Plain "malen" is more general; you can paint after your imagination, or after a real-world model, if you paint after a real-world model, you can modify or distort it.
 
He guys
Assume I have a matrix $A$ that is isomorphic with a diagonal matrix $\Lambda$
Assume I have that matrix and I have that diagonal matrix
how can I compute the invertible matrix $P\in\mathbb R^n$ for which it holds that: $\Lambda=P^{-1}A P$?
I've jut gone through the trouble of finding that diagonal matrix, but I've never encountered a problem where I...
I wait
I think I know it
It's just the identity matrix of the change of basis (eigenvector basis to standard basis, I think)
right, never mind
oh wait
apparently it's the matrix of the eigenvectors
but that is of course what I described. I just didn't realise I'm going to plug in the coordinate vectors of the eigenvectors (w.r.t. the standard basis)
 
8:36 PM
@ShaVuklia how are matrices isomorphic...?
 
it's how we describe it in Dutch
we use the term
oh sorry
I said isomorphic
but I meant similar
in Dutch 'similar' is translated to "same shape", which is what "isomorphic" practically means :P
hence the stupid confusion from my part @Zach
 
oh, it's fine :P
 
I'm dying. I think I've done 20 hours linear algebra this weekend :l And I still need to finish a chapter on inner products
But that's life:')
 
@ShaVuklia I remember those days :D
 
Haha XD
 
8:41 PM
@DanielFischer Vielen Dank !
 
I suspect life's harder when it's chemistry you have to do instead of linear algebra.
 
@Balarka No Way!
 
Everything is worse than mathematics :P
for me to study, at least
 
I guess I am the only one who also liked chemistry :P
 
Meh
 
8:42 PM
Hahahah, well... you are on a math-forum after all XD
 
chemistry is merely handwaving
 
amen!
 
Well, mathematics is merely logic! :P
 
Get out.
 
no, you won't get anywhere without intuition
 
8:43 PM
@MikeMiller I don't see why there should be many.
 
I agree with LeGrand
 
you just need to love it :P then everything falls on its place:) (cheesy, I know)
 
@PVAL-inactive It's true for manifolds that fiber at all by looking at the Thurston norm.
Closed*.
 
Sure the fiber is minimal genus
 
Well every subject has its own flavor, be it Math, Chemistry or Literature. One can enjoy all of them :p
 
8:44 PM
I'm not sure why that means theres lots of different fibrations by seifert surfaces
Are there even that many minimal genus seifert surfaces of a knot
I thought the isotopy class of these things is probably finite.
 
Good literature is always good. I hate science because I can't remember stuff
 
There's lots of taut foliations with various boundary slopes
 
@Balarka If only I could remember everything I ever read...
 
,but these generally aren't arising as fiberings of the knot exterior by seifert surfaces
 
Ah I see your point,
 
8:51 PM
Giroux-Goodman says that I should be able to go between any fiberings of links (not necessairly fixing the link) by Hopf plumbing (or stabilization). I don't know of any non-trivial set of these operations
which arrives back at the same link with a different fibering
 
Ah yeah.
 
so my guess there is a unique fibering
I don't know if theres a Giroux free proof of that fact.
 
Uniqueness still sounds like too much for me but I believe you on finitude now.
 
@ShaVuklia $P$ has rows and columns which are the eigen vectors of $A$
 
@Mike Here's a paper omitting the fibering condition jstor.org/stable/1970584?seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents
 
8:55 PM
What's it titled? I can never access jstor at home for some reason.
 
Complements of Minimal Spanning Surfaces of Knots are Not Unique Alford
Pretty certain that the answer is there is only one fibering
and its in
On Fibering Certain 3-manifolds
by Stallings
@Mike The intro to the alford paper seems to suggest its unique
 
9:30 PM
@Balarka I don't see why nbhds of the bad point in $CH$, where $H$ is the Hawaiian earring are simply connected
 
@Alessandro They aren't.
It's not locally simply connected, but is semilocally simply connected
 
I don't think I understood the difference between the 2 then
Let me look it up
 
Locally simply connected means every point has a neighborhood which is simply connected. Semilocally simply connected means every point $p$ has a neighborhood such that any loop in that neighborhood based at $p$ can be nullhomotoped in the ambient space.
 
@Zach lol yea, that's what I wrote at the end:d
 
@ShaVuklia sorry :[
anyways, do you understand why its the matrix of eigenvectors?
 
9:35 PM
Aha, I can leave this neighbourhood when "shrinking" the loop, now I see the difference. Ok, back to the earring
 
one of my science teachers marked a test question wrong
but i had it right
but i cant argue because
well "the teacher is always right"
 
@Alessandro Yep
 
Hm, I guess I should try to understand why the whole space isn't simply connected and why those "bad" loops aren't contained in small enough nbhds of the point where the circles touch
 
hmm, the tangent line/plane/hyperplane resembles the local neighborhood of a point on a function
like, if you zoom in enough
 
Yeah. It's the hyperplane that approximates it the best at that point.
It also explains why $|x|$ doesn't have a tangent at zero; no matter how much you zoom in on that point, it'll always still look like an angle.
 
9:50 PM
@Zach oh, you don't have to apologise!
yes I understand it
 
@AkivaWeinberger so it wouldn't be a manifold?
 
it's basically the identity matrix from the basis of eigenvectors to the standard basis
 
because it doesn't resemble euclidean space at every point?
 
It's not a smooth manifold, but I think manifolds in general can have corners
 
Because the diagonal matrix is basically the matrix that is associated with the linear transformation $L_A$ w.r.t. a basis of eigenvectors, so you have to change the basis, which is done with the invertible matrix we were looking for
 
9:51 PM
It's a topological manifold
 
As a topological manifold the graph of |x| is homeomorphic to R
 
Corners are different objects, actually, @Akiva
 
Are they?
 
Yes. Corner points are where the manifold is locally homeo/diffeomorphic to half of half-plane.
 
9:53 PM
Is corner point synonimous with boundary point?
 
Stuff like the solid square. The turn-points are corner points, so it's a manifold with corners.
 
For the topological category, they're the same, right?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Nope. Boundary points are locally like the half plane.
 
Ah, nvm, I see
 
(Also, in 3D do you halve it three times?)
 
9:54 PM
@AkivaWeinberger ok so my question is why does it take infinitely many open sets to cover $(0,1)$, but not $[0,1]$?
 
@AkivaWeinberger I mean, the solid square isn't even a manifold.
 
Yeah, I missed a "half"
 
Not even a manifold with boundary.
 
@BalarkaSen Isn't it homeomorphic to a disk??
 
@BalarkaSen what about a plane?
 
9:55 PM
Aren't all star-shaped objects homeomorphic to a disk?
@ZachHauk Take $(.1,1)$, $(.01,1)$, $(.001,1)$, etc
 
@AkivaWeinberger Oh, upto homeomorphism. Sure. But that's not the right thing to look at for manifold with corners.
 
This covers $(0,1)$, every point in $(0,1)$ is in one of those intervals
 
{(0,1)} covers (0,1)
 
(It does not cover $[0,1)$, since $0$ isn't in any of those intervals)
Can you show that it doesn't have a finite subcover?
@BalarkaSen I'm 3D, do you have edges and corners?
 
well obviously it doesnt
 
9:57 PM
*in (though it's true anyway, I suppose)
 
but why doesnt just $(0,1)$ work?
 
Is there a related notion for points where a $C^k$ manifold is $C^k$ but not $C^{k+1}$?
 
also, how am i supposed to include 0 and 1 with an open set without going outside of $[0,1]$?
 
@ZachHauk For $(0,1)$ to be compact, we need every cover to have a finite subcover.
 
@ZachHauk a cover of [0,1] can have sets that include points outside of [0,1]
 
9:58 PM
@AkivaWeinberger I meant regarding that thing you said about 1/x being unbounded
 
@AkivaWeinberger For 3D it can look locally like R+ x R^2, R+^2 x R I guess.
 
@ZachHauk The cover I defined was the set of all intervals on which the function $1/x$ is bounded. $(0,1)$ isn't in that cover, since $1/x$ isn't bounded on it
 
Yeah, so edges and corners are the right word I suppose
 
what are you covering @Akiva?
 
ah yeah
 
9:59 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Every C^k manifold admits a C^k+1 atlas if k >= 1
 
but how do we cover $[0,1]$ then without going outside it?
 

« first day (2399 days earlier)      last day (2616 days later) »