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8:00 PM
I told myself I was going to focus on numerical analysis and not get distracted by other math tonight. I already failed twice :P
 
You're extremely good at such failures, @Alessandro. It's one of your strengths, I would say :P
I'm currently distracted by a differential geometry question that Balarka could have asked but didn't.
 
Indeed, I must agree
that must be a very interesting question to be distracting before being asked
 
But I think it's one of the measures of what kind of mathematician you are, @Alessandro.
@AlessandroCodenotti I figured I should ask Balarka the question he should have asked, but I'm curious to know the answer :P
I'm pretty sure I know the answer is no, but I want an example.
 
@TedShifrin I'm not sure how to interpret that
ah, I see, he'll probably be around soon
 
(It was intended as a compliment.)
Yes, it's getting to be his bedtime, so he probably will show up.
 
8:05 PM
@TedShifrin I'm lost :c
 
Heya @Daminark
 
Hey @Ted, how's it going?
 
Good linear algebra question for you :)
 
Do tell!
 
If the characteristic polynomial of $A$ is $-t^3-2t^2+t+2$, what is $\det(A^3+A^2-A-I)$?
 
8:06 PM
$-I$ at the end
 
@TedShifrin how can i find pb(1)?
 
@TedShifrin \o
 
@user379685: $p_B(t) = -(t-\mu_1)(t-\mu_2)(t-\mu_3)$, where the $\mu_i$ are the eigenvalues of $B$, right?
Salut, @Hippa!
 
(well, the approach should be the same with $+I$)
 
Thanks, @Alessandro.
Hippa probably knows a good way to do this problem.
 
8:08 PM
@TedShifrin yes
 
@TedShifrin Haven't done any maths in some months now >.> what's the problem ? this one ?
2 mins ago, by Ted Shifrin
If the characteristic polynomial of $A$ is $-t^3-2t^2+t+2$, what is $\det(A^3+A^2-A-I)$?
 
$p_B(1)=-(1-\sum \mu_i + \sum_{i<j} \mu_i\mu_j - \mu_1\mu_2\mu_3)$. @user379
 
uhhhh
 
So can you figure out those expressions in $\mu_i$ from knowing stuff about $A$? @user379685
Yes, @Hippa.
I will say that usually these problems are made up to be easy if you do something obvious, but I don't see that here (and neither did @Alessandro).
 
@TedShifrin how did you get that formula?
 
8:10 PM
I multiplied out the factored formula I had before.
Which is what you should do with a general characteristic polynomial to realize that the coefficients are expressed in terms of the eigenvalues of the matrix.
 
yep that seems uglier than the usual problems but I might be missing something of course
 
Uh >.> I probably would have been able to do something a few months back, but it's really fuzzy in my head rn :( i'd need to go back to my class notes a bit
 
So $1$ and $-1$ are eigenvalues
 
Are there nice interpretations for the coefficents of the terms of degree $2$ of higher of the characteristic polynomials as there are for the degree $1$ and $0$ terms?
 
Oh there's another typo. The characteristic polynomial is $-t^3-3t^2+t+2$, which has no integer root.
 
8:13 PM
And because the polynomial is cubic, the third root is real. It feels like it's going to be different, so I'm gonna try to find it, then I guess one (unelegant) way would be to manually calculate the determinant of that expression using a diagonal form of $A$
Oh
 
@Alessandro: You don't mean $1$ in general.
You mean $n-1$. That's (up to sign) the trace. Yes, the coefficients are all, up to sign, the symmetric polynomials in the eigenvalues :)
Super super important, even for topology and geometry.
Sorry, @Daminark. The folks should have caught that.
 
It's alright, haha
 
@user379685: First question I asked you: Do you know the eigenvalues of $A^3+A^2-A$ in terms of the eigenvalues of $A$?
 
wait
 
I've been prone to errors today, it seems, @Daminark. Time for me to retire. Oh.
 
8:15 PM
@TedShifrin I see, interesting
 
@TedShifrin No i do not :(
 
Hint: If $Av=\lambda v$, what is $(A^3+A^2-A)v$?
 
it's λv(A^2+A-A) ?
 
(@user379685: What sort of course are you in?)
 
Linear algebra
 
8:19 PM
Agh. That is not making any sense at all.
What kind of linear algebra class?
What you wrote makes me think this problem is too hard.
 
I don't know what kinds are there
It was on a exam from a previous year
and it shouldn't be hard
 
This is a pretty sophisticated problem.
Go ask your professor how to do it.
 
Ah, so it's $(\lambda^3 + \lambda^2 - \lambda)v$
And we know that $\det(A) = 2$
 
Right. So the eigenvalues of $q(A)$ are $q(\lambda)$ for any polynomial $q$ and eigenvalue $\lambda$ of $A$.
But be careful, @Daminark.
 
So we try to find an expression for the product of the eigenvalues of $A^3 + A^2 - A - I$ in terms of those of $A$?
Also using the other terms of the characteristic polynomial
 
8:22 PM
I'm guessing that there's a typo in the problem, @user379685. It's too hard for an elementary linear algebra course.
 
Oh, am I nearing a trap?
 
Not quite, @Daminark.
Well, yes, you want the product of those eigenvalues.
 
I thought you were going to use $\det(A+B)=\det A+\det B$, @Daminark. But you're too smart for that.
 
Ah, haha, yeah, I've made that mistake enough to avoid it
Also
 
8:25 PM
@TedShifrin could you quickly summarize your solution, i'm a bit short on time and can't really ask my professor
 
If you use Cayley-Hamilton, you get that $A^3 + A^2 - A - I = I - 2A^2$ if I didn't mess up
That might be easier to work with
 
From what you wrote down when I asked you about $(A^3+A^2-A)v$, @user379685, I think you have some basic things to learn.
Yes, @Daminark. That'll make the algebra easier.
So you need the product of the eigenvalues of that matrix.
 
@TedShifrin like what?
 
Like how to correctly compute that quantity, @user379685. What you wrote was nonsense.
 
I think I am going to get a fever again. Darn it.
 
8:28 PM
STOP that, @Balarka.
Did you read above that I'm stuck on a question you should have asked me? :)
 
A^3v + A^2v - Av = A^2*Av + AAv -Av = A^2*λv+ Aλv - λv ?
 
Keep going, @user379685.
 
@TedShifrin Currently reading this. Why's that true?
My intuition is failing.
 
=(A^2 + A - I)λv=?
 
I want no $A$'s left in the answer, @user379685.
It's one of the Codazzi equations, @Balarka.
But the question is: Must the surface be a surface of revolution?
Now that I look at those exams, @user379685, I understand you're in Poland (I think) and such courses are far more sophisticated there than in the US.
 
8:32 PM
yeah i am from poland
 
@TedShifrin ! Hi
 
Yeah, they expect serious math students there ... not like most of the places in the US.
hi @Maks
 
Could you give me a hand here ?
 
So I no longer think it is a typo, @user379685. You need to know more than you seem to know.
I'm leaving in a minute, @Maks. What's up?
 
I got an $ f(x) = x + cos(x) $, and I have to find its primitive function on (0,4)
 
8:34 PM
@TedShifrin can't you just tell me the solution and i'll work on what i'm missing
 
@TedShifrin Because $d\omega_{23} = k_1 d\omega_2 = 0$, so if we feed $e_2$ to it we get $k_1 = 0$ in the $e_2$-direction. Is that what you are saying?
 
But, primitive = integral, and I cant calculate the integral on one point, well I mean, I can, but its the value of the function on that point, no need to integrate
And secondly, the function doesnt have the point (0,4)
So what does it mean ??
 
Interval $[0,4]$, @Maks, not point.
 
@TedShifrin it says point..
 
No, @user379685. It's too involved.
I don't have time to type out a 15-minute answer.
 
8:36 PM
OH ! I get it, its the point (0,4), he wants my constant to be 4
So the primitive valuated on 0 is 4
 
Oh, your English is wrong, @Maks. When you say primitive function on (0,4) ... that is not what that means.
A primitive whose graph goes through (0,4) is different.
 
@TedShifrin well, i don't even think it requires so much work, my professor said all of these questions should have an easy and relativly quick solution
 
Oh, ok, thank you !
 
Well, then go ask your professor, because we don't see it.
But in the meantime you had better know INSTANTANEOUSLY what $(A^3+A^2-A)v$ simplifies to if $Av=\lambda v$.
@Daminark, @Alessandro: Did you figure it out?
 
Modulo computation errors I get that the determinant is $2(\lambda_1^2\lambda_2^2 + \lambda_1^2\lambda_3^2 + \lambda_2^2\lambda_3^2 - \lambda_1^2 - \lambda_2^2 - \lambda_3^2) - 7$
Sorry typo
 
8:39 PM
YOu're missing some $2$'s ...
I don't get the 7. There should be -31 perhaps?
 
@TedShifrin Re your question. If $k_1$ is everywhere constant then it's (a subset of) a tube, by a theorem we discussed a long time ago. So it's indeed natural to expect it'd be a surface of revolution if $k_1$ is constant along the $e_2$-direction (given a principal frame).
Fun.
 
Oh wait no I screwed up the computation big time
I dropped a lot of 2s
That's where the 7 came in as well
Revised answer coming in a bit
 
@Balarka: $k_1$ is only constant in the $e_2$ direction. It can definitely vary along the $e_1$ curves!!!
You're confused re that previous tube question.
 
I know
No, I am just saying if it's everywhere constant then it's a tube.
 
In our notation, we'd need $k_2$ constant on the $e_2$ curves, and I cannot deduce that.
 
8:41 PM
I didn't claim your thing is a tube too
 
I'm trying to show it's a general surface of revolution, but I think that too is false.
So you need to finish, @Daminark :P
 
Hi, i am proving that the variance of cauchy distribution is not defined.
i have proved that the expectation of it is not defined , is it correct to conclude that the variance is not defined ?
 
OK so it's actually $4\lambda_1^2\lambda_2^2 + 4\lambda_2^2\lambda_3^2 + 4\lambda_1^2\lambda_3^2 - 2\lambda_1^2 - 2\lambda_2^2 - 2\lambda_3^2 - 31$
 
I'd be surprised if there's a counterexample, but my intuition about these sort of things is terribad
Nice question however
 
Keeping things grouped/factored will help, @Daminark. Now finish :P
@Balarka: By the Fundamental Theorem of Surface Theory, if we can write down first and second fundamental form that satisfy Gauss, Codazzi, there exists (at least locally) a surface.
 
8:43 PM
And one last question @TedShifrin
 
@TedShifrin I'm not really thinking about it to be honest
 
Suppose that $C$ is an algebraic closure of $F$, $f\in F[x]$ irreducible and $a,b\in C$ roots of $f$.
We have the field extension $F\leq F[x]/\langle f\rangle$. That means that $F\rightarrow F[x]/\langle f\rangle$ is an homomoprhism, right?
Does it hold that $C$ is also an algebraic closure of $F[x]/\langle f\rangle$ ?
 
Good, @Alessandro. You have numerical analysis.
 
@TedShifrin maybe you can help me ? :-)
 
Better not tell @Ted I'm thinking about differential topology in the other chatroom
 
8:44 PM
$ \int a^x = a^x log(a) $
or
$ \int a^x = \dfrac {a^x} {log(a)} $
 
He's not doing numerical analysis though. He's procrastinating on tangent bundles
 
smacks @Alessandro
Try differentiating your answer and see if you're right, Maks.
 
@TedShifrin oh, first one is differentiation second one integration
 
Right.
 
You called it differentiate or derivative ?
call*
 
8:47 PM
The derivative is the result of differentiating.
 
Oh, ok
 
i have showed $ E[X]$ does not exists ("infinity" - "infinity") , can i conclude that $Var(X) $ does not exists too?
 
I don't think so @Liad.
 
Why not?
 
8:50 PM
Hi chat
 
$Var(X) = E[X \ ^ 2 ] - E[X ] \ ^ 2 $
 
@Daminark: My final answer is ... $-1$ ... which makes me think there's a sneaky way to get this faster. But I have no idea what it is.
 
That's not quite how variance is defined is it
 
if $E[X] $ does not exists, then $ E[X] \ ^ 2$ does not exists either
 
@Liad, that assumes things make sense. But that does not imply $E[X^2]$ doesn't exist.
I need to go eat lunch. Bye all.
 
8:52 PM
(Slightly old news) q analogue codes Hmm... it seems most maths structure tend to end up in applications involving computer sciences
 
$E[(X-E(X))^2] = E[X^2 - 2XE[X] +E[X]^2] = E[X^2] -E[X]^2$
Bye ted
 
So I'm gonna need to go to Classics soon but my suspicion wrt the computation is that it'll involve some schemery with the $(x+y)^2 - 2xy = x^2 + y^2$
 
if it is, then $E[x] \ ^ 2 = Var(x) - E[X \ ^ 2 ] $ exists!
 
I guess it doesn't matter. Variance is the 2nd moment about the expected value, which does not make sense if the expected value doesn't.
 
What was the question ?
 
8:53 PM
you asking me?
 
But I'm not yet sure how to pull it off. I'll get back to it eventually. See you!
 
For instance, yeah
 
i proved that $E[X] $ does not exists
i want to conclude that $Var(X)$ does not exists too
 
Hello.
 
I think you can
And I agree with what Balarka said
 
8:56 PM
i proved it as follows :
if Var exists, $E[X ] \ ^ 2 = E[ X \ ^ 2 ] -Var(X)$, so if Var exists, then $E[X \ ^ 2] $ doesnt, and so we get a contradiction. @Astyx what do you think?
something feel wrong to me here..
 
I think the result is even stronger than this
 
What do you mean?
 
If $L^p$ denotes the space of variables than have a p-th moment, then for all $p$ we have $L^{p+1} \ subset L^p$
What kind of variables are you dealing with ? @Liad
 
X is cauchy distribution
i showed $E[X] $ is of the form $ \infty - \infty $ so it does not exists, i thought there is a shurtcut for showing the variance does not exists either
 
So continuous ?
 
9:02 PM
yes
 
@Liad I guess you could see that $x^p \le 1+ x^{p+1}$
For positive $x$ of course
 
When C is an algebraic closure of F and a is an element of C, is C also an algebraic closure of F[a] ?
 
@Liad: Just compute the variance using the definition (with the integral).
It clearly is undefined, because you have $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{y^2}{1+y^2}\,dy.$$
Your argument about expectation is not exactly meaningful.
You need to explain why the improper integral $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac y{1+y^2}\,dy$$ does not exist. (Its Cauchy principal value is $0$, however.)
 
sorry @TedShifrin I had to go to attend my reading class.
I give lecture to my professor every week.
@TedShifrin I solved the problem while presenting him the lecture in quadratic forms. I solved it in my head.
@TedShifrin Here is my argument
 
I don't know what you're sorry about. You mean the homotopy between the identity and the antipodal map?
 
yeah
 
That does suggest something an interesting question: if a PDF has undefined $n$th moment, can any of the higher moments past that be well-defined?
 
9:26 PM
Suppose n is odd then show that $\phi : S^n \rightarrow S^n$ antipodal is null-homotopic. This will be null-homotopic if we can construct a continous extension $\psi : B^{n + 1} \rightarrow S^n$. Construct such extension as $x \mapsto \phi(\frac{x}{||x||})$
 
It seems to follow from comparison if you use Lebesgue integrals (taking absolute values).
 
Then we are done
 
Whoa, Karim. You're trying to prove the wrong thing.
The antipodal map is never nullhomotopic.
 
oh
 
Mmkay
 
9:27 PM
It is homotopic to the identity :S :S
I see
I thought something is wrong...
no spoilers I will figure it out.
 
What you wrote down clearly makes no sense on the ball. You need to pay attention to crap you write!
 
yeah
 
Really beginning to despise signals.
 
Turn signals?
 
No. Just sinusoids.
 
9:35 PM
oh
 
Have to get the components for a couple just from a diagram of the wave. Really frustrating for me when the waves are products of a couple different sine waves.
Just need practice..
 
You know the $\sin(A)\sin(B) = -\cos((A+B)/2)+\cos((A-B)/2)$ type formulas, @Owatch?
 
I think I have the idea geometrically. I will try to turn my intuition into math. I think I want a homotopy from identity to the antipodal map. I think the way I want this to work is to move from a point anti clockwise into its antipodal point using the non-vanishing vector field somehow so we are moving along a arc. @TedShifrin
 
OK Karim. Now do it :P
 
Yes I am aware of those formulas.
 
9:40 PM
So that's how you do a product of two sine waves, @Owatch.
 
But I'm not drawing sinusoids using a product given to me.
I'm doing it the other way around.
 
Oh, you said products.
 
@TedShifrin So what do you recommend me to do next? I clearly haven't developed the intuition for moving frames I want yet
 
Have you done all the exercises, @Balarka? I can give you more from my grad course, too, of course.
 
Any exercises you recommend for me?
 
9:40 PM
Yeah, the waves I'm trying to get the components of are products of simpler waves (I'm only given the plot though).
 
Nah, haven't done much
 
I mentioned the last one as particularly fascinating (Bäcklund's Theorem for producing a surface of constant negative curvature from another one)
 
Ah, ok.
 
But there are several good exercises, and a few boring ones just to get used to stuff.
 
hi chat , when they give me a cylinder or a parapoloid eg. x^2+y^2 =2 , 0<z<3 , and z= x^2+y^2 , 0<z<1 , should I assume that the surface is open when I use the divergence theorem ?
 
9:41 PM
I actually am curious about a non surface of revolution along the lines we were discussing.
@Kasmir: You keep writing < but it should always be $\le$.
But you cannot apply the divergence theorem unless the surface has no boundary — i.e., encloses a finite volume.
 
Can you tell me how you type in latex form that fast?
 
I have been typesetting papers and books for years.
 
and when i count the flux , should i then delete the flux from the surface that i added ?
 
@Balarka: A lot of those "redo" exercises are excellent for you to do, too.
Correct, @Kasmir.
 
@TedShifrin I don't have much geometric intuition about the exterior derivative of the forms coming out of the moving frames. I can plug the formulas but I feel like I am missing something.
 
9:44 PM
@Balarka: If you want a cool challenge, prove Clairaut's relation for geodesics on a surface of revolution using moving frames. It takes thinking about actual triangles :P
 
the normal have to be the same eg. the out nomral in the case of paraboloid opning upward and a plane z=1 , the normal for the circle at z=1 is ( 0,0,1)
 
Hmm, thanks. I'll bookmark this.
 
Well, in fairness, what intuition do you have for $P_y-Q_x$?
 
but i take negative of that when am done correct?
 
@Kasmir: All the normals have to be compatibly oriented. It depends on which way the normal to your paraboloid is pointing.
 
9:46 PM
Hi chat.
 
okay thnaks ! :)
 
@Balarka: Ultimately, all intuition for the exterior derivative comes from thinking about Stokes's Theorem "infinitesimally."
 
Anyone know a good lectures online about complex analysis ?
._.
 
Hubbard and Hubbard (which I dislike) even defines the exterior derivative that way — or they did in the early editions. I thought that was cruel and unusual for a freshman taking the course.
 
You have a sign error :) I guess in general I think of it as curl of the vector field $(P, Q)$ the form is dual to.
@TedShifrin This is a fair point.
 
9:47 PM
So you're actually thinking about curl physically? Good for you :P
 
$z$-component of $\nabla\times \mathbf{F}$.
 
Yeah yeah
 
Hi @Semi
 
I tend to default to vector calculus, for better or worse.
 
Yeah, I think of it as a measure of how a thing rotates under the action of the vector field.
 
9:49 PM
Good luck in 4-space :P
curl doesn't make sense
 
Yup, screwed for 2-forms.
 
Nope.
 
Is there no equivalent of curl in 4-space ?
 
@Balarka: The nice form of Codazzi with moving frames reduces to something like that Lemma 3.3 (which you tried to ignore) in section 2.3, which gave a reasonable setting for the horrid Codazzi equations. Ultimately, you want to learn Frobenius and relate d to integrability questions for distributions.
No, @Astyx. There's a 6-component 2-vector.
Nothing resembling a vector field.
 
Oh right
 
9:51 PM
Both $dx_1\wedge dx_2$ and $dx_3\wedge dx_4$ are 2-forms.
 
@TedShifrin A^3+A^2-A-I=(A+I)^2(A-I)
det(A^3+A^2-A-I)=det^2(A+I)det(A-I)
A+I=B
(A+I)*v=λb*v
λb=λ+1
det(A+I)=detB=λb1*λb2*λb3=(λa1+1)(λa2+1)(λa3+1)=1+(λa1+λa2+λa3)+
+(λa1λa2+λa1λa2+λa2λa3)+λa1λa2λa3 Vieta's formulas and done
 
Yes, Vietas formulas is what I was using. I didn't think to factor $A^3+A^2-A-I$, however. That was the sneaky thing I missed.
 
god i lost 1h of my life :c
 
Wait. Your factoring is wrong.
 
Though, that bothers me a little. One can do electrogmagnetism in either 3+1 spacetime or just 3-space; one does curl in the latter, but it should also show up (in a presumably disguised way) in the former.
 
9:53 PM
It's (A^2-I)(A+I) = (A+I)^2 (A-I). OK.
You had it right. I just didn't simplify it the same way.
I still say you need to know what I said you needed to know, though.
 
oh yeah i forgot about that, you're right xd
 
But then, electric and magnetic fields look a bit different in 3+1D than in 3D. (You can write both as 3-vectors in the latter case, but you can't write either as 4-vectors.)
 
Good luck on your exam. Thanks for showing me the trick :)
 
@TedShifrin Thanks, no problem.
 
(or at any rate one shouldn't, since they transform as the Faraday tensor.)
 
9:55 PM
@Semiclassic: Probably best to do E&M with forms (I even put Maxwell's equations in my book) :)
 
In 3D or 3+1D?
 
The latter.
 
Mmkay.
 
Did I ever ask you if you knew Bamberg & Sternberg's 2-volume physics/math book for Harvard freshmen?
 
Probably.
I haven't.
 
9:56 PM
It's a cool book. I held on to it when I gave away everything.
 
I think that E&M in the forms language reduces to...hmm, lemme think
 
Hodge star changes a little bit with the 3+1 signature, of course.
 
$\star d F=0$, $dF=J$.
I may have those mixed up a bit (and to hell with units)
 
And you're ignoring field time variation?
 
> to hell with units
+1
 
9:58 PM
for the matter at hand, hah
 
universally
 
pffft
 
Oh, actually, not. That's in there.
 
Yeah. J as 4-current
 
Go to sleep, @Balarka.
 

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