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10:00 AM
well $15+17=32$ I think
so I got one
so $2^{8n+5}$
 
correct :)
 
I'm not sure how that's funny though
 
How do you prove there's nothing else however?
 
$2^4 = -1$ and $2^8 = 1$ so the remainders are $8$ periodic
 
Ah, good point.
 
10:03 AM
i have one that is maybe a bit more interesting
In ancient Byzantium, a game similar to basketball was played that gave $a$ points for a field goal and $b$ points for a free throw. Surviving manuscripts do not record the values of $a$ and $b$. However, it is known that in this game exactly $14$ natural numbers were impossible point totals and that one of the impossible scores was $22$. Determine the number of points given for field goals and free throws in Byzantine basketball. Assume that $a>b$.
 
canyouwriteitinmaths
 
I think I am done with number theory for now though
 
I wish it was easier to visualize $\Bbb P^n(\Bbb C)$
because it seems beautiful
but we can't see it
;w;
 
I assume you know the cell decomposition?
 
a point, then a $2$cell then a $4$cell etc ?
 
10:08 AM
Right.
Which brings the question - how do you want to visualize it? I am quite satisfied with the pictures I have.
 
I want to see how a degree $n$ equation defines a curve that loops $n$ times
for example
 
Make it intersect with a generic line? You'd get n points in the intersection (by Bezout's theorem, if you wish), which would tell you it wraps n times, yeah?
Also a degree n equation gives you a hypersurface, not a curve.
But yeah, I get you.
 
I was thinking of complex projective plane first
let's not be too hasty
 
Fair enough.
 
like, what's the fundamental group of projective plane with a degree $n$ curve removed
 
10:12 AM
Oh, that'd be much more complicated.
fundamental group of quasiprojective varieties are not well understood. but I think it's doable in dimension 2, hmm.
 
what's the fundamental group of the space of smooth degree $n$ curves
 
in wolfram alpha
 
I do believe the fundamental group depends on your equation of the curve. Just the homology class is not sufficient, I do not think
 
how do you plot in the complex plane?
 
what do you mean by that @Lozansky
also did you know that when you rotate a line of slope $i$ by a real angle it stays of slope $i$
 
10:16 AM
say i have a function $z(t) = a+t(bi+d)$ and i want to plot it for some interval
if i just plug it in, wolframalpha plots the real part and the imaginary part separetely
 
isn't that just a segment
 
yes
 
anyway I wouldn't know I never use wolframalpha for plotting
and I don't have mathematica
 
@mercio I am forgetting what the space of degree $d$ hypersurfaces in $\Bbb P^n$ is. A degree $d$ hypersurface is given by $\sum a_{i_0 \cdots i_n} X_0^{i_0} \cdots X_n^{i_n} = 0$ with $i_0 + \cdots + i_n = d$, yeah? So it's $\Bbb P^{\binom{n+d}{d}}$, I think.
Now you want smooth curves in there. That's harder.
 
yeah you have to remove the hypersurface corresponding to vanishing of the discriminant or something
 
10:20 AM
Yes, remove the hypersurface given by det of Jacobian = 0.
These are interesting questions I don't know the answers to.
 
I'm not expecting you to know them o.o
 
if i want to integrate $\int_{2}^{i} \frac{dz}{1-z^2}$ for the path where $z$ goes from $2$ to $i$, can't i just evaluate $\frac{1}{2}(log(z+1)-log(1-z) |_{2}^{i}$?
 
be careful with complex logarithms
 
@mercio Recently I heard the following question. Suppose you have a complex abelian surface, aka $E_a \times E_b$ where $E_a, E_b$ are elliptic curves. Remove a finite family of elliptic curves from $E_a \times E_b$ which are of the form $mE_a + nE_b$. What's the fundamental group?
I think this is open or something.
People don't know much about fundamental group of quasiprojective varieties, as opposed to projective varieties.
 
well i would use $ log(z) = Log|z| + iArg(z)$
 
10:25 AM
would you be able to evaluate your thing to compute the integral for any path from $2$ to $i$ ?
@BalarkaSen that looks like a stupid hard question
but beautiful ;w;
 
its independent of the path?
 
WRONG
 
damn it
its not continous at z = 1
 
so you will have to explain why whatever expression for $log$ you took will work for the actual path
 
so we avoid that point
or well $z = \pm 1$
 
10:28 AM
if I write a giant scribble from $2$ to $i$ while somehow avoiding $1$ and $-1$, I don't always get the same result for the integral
 
@mercio yup
 
hmm yeah we cant allow $z+1$ or $1-z$ to be real negative either
 
well
how do you even start at $2$ then ??
 
good question
:D
 
you just need to find some expressions for those logs that work on the path
 
10:32 AM
hmm do you mean finding a suitable branch?
 
yes
 
@BalarkaSen shoulda been $\binom{n+d}{d} - 1$ now that I look back, but w/e
 
can you do that just from noting that $-1<z<1$?
then the argument is between $-\pi$ and $0$
ugh this is confusing
 
did you just write $-1 < z < 1$
 
yes
 
10:37 AM
what does it mean ?
 
well that would be a line segment on the x-axis
 
I thought your integral was from $2$ to $i$
 
yes
 
which is quite different form that segment on the real axis
you can give a branch of $log$ by telling where we should pick the arguments yes
so you only need to show a way to pick arguments for $z+1$ and $1-z$
when $z$ moves along the segment from $2$ to $i$
in fact you will only use the difference in the arguments
 
so the value of $z+1$ goes from $3$ to $ i+1$ and the value of $1-z$ goes from $-1$ to $1-i$?
 
10:43 AM
yes
so you could solve both logs by saying that you will pick the arguments in ... $(-5\pi/4 ; +3\pi/4)$
for example
or you could draw those segments and measure the angle they make with $0$
I mean the angle at $0$ of the triangles
 
how did you find that interval?
 
I drew a line from $0$ that didn't cross the two segments
do you prefer a spiral instead ?
Also you can choose different branches for each log
like the principal log for the first segment, and $i\pi + \log(-z)$ for the second segment
you don't even have to be crafty
in fact for whatever path you have, at worst you can just split it up in different pieces so that on each piece there is one of those two that work
 
i dont understand what you mean by drawing a line from $\mathbb{0}$ that doesn't cross the two line segments
 
you can never define a logarithm function on a set that loops around $0$
so the so-called principal branch of the logarithm is defined on all of C except the negative reals
that works because if you do a loop around $0$ you will cross the negative reals at one point
 
yeah
 
10:51 AM
and usually we want to get definitions that work for the largest possible subsets of C
so here, we need one that works for the two segment
and if I choose to remove a halfline that doesn't cross the segments, I will be able to define a log on all of C except that halfline and which will be helpful for your integral
so i chose to remove the diagonal that goes in the second quadrant
and then i chose a way to compute arguments continuously
 
the diagonal?
 
in order to define that log
the points whose arguments are in $3\pi/4$ mod $2pi$
that's the line $(0 ; -1+i)$
then for every point in $C$ that is NOT on this line, they have an argument that fall in the interval $(-5\pi/4 ; 3\pi/4)$
 
well how did you get -1+i?
 
I chose it so that the line $(0;-1+i)$ didn't intersect the segments
the halfline*
I could have picked $-7+12i$
 
yeah
 
10:56 AM
or $15-3i$
 
it just had to be in the second quadrant?
 
no
ith as to not intersect the two segments
or $2+19i$
 
yeah okay but any (half)line in the second quadrant satisfies that, right?
 
yes except the horizontal line
 
mhm
does the interval have to be of length $2\pi$?
 
11:00 AM
there is no reason why it shouldn't
as I said you usually want to define arg and log on biggest regions possible
but noone is stopping you for leaving them undefined on a larger chunk of the plane
 
okay so now when I calcuate the logs, i choose the argument that lies in that interval?
 
now you define log with that argument
then its derivative is $1/z$ where it's defined, and the segments are included in the domain of log, so you can use it to find an antiderivative of your function on the segment between $2$ and $i$
 
11:18 AM
i got $-\frac{1}{2}(Log3+i \pi)$
does it make sense that it's negative both real and imaginary
 
Hi @Anubhav
 
Hii
 
Hey guys, I need some help
 
11:34 AM
@BalarkaSen I read your one comment, where you asked whether any sphere bundle can be realized as a unit bundle of some v.b?
So did you get any ans for that?
@SylentNyte say it, we'll try to help you
 
I have a question, a pattern continues to infinity and the pattern is in rows; 1, 2 3, 4 5 6, so triangle numbers, I need to find where the number 999 is, how do I do this?
I used the equation n(n+1)/2 = 999 so therefore n^2 + n - 1989 = 0
But I'm not sure how I find what row the number is in using this
 
find the value of n first
 
How do I do that without a calcukator
 
integer value [n] will be the answer
Do you know how to solve a quadratic equation
replace n by $x$ and find the solution for it
 
I don't know how I'll find a solution
 
11:39 AM
do you know how to solve a quadratic equation?
 
If I replace n with x I get x^2 + x - 1989 = 0
 
@Anubhav Yes, it's not true.
 
Why?
@BalarkaSen
 
Essentially equivalent to asking that Diff(S^n) is homotopy equivalent to O(n+1).
 
How??
I didn't get
 
11:40 AM
That's more or less obvious. Look at the transition maps.
Transition map of a linear sphere bundle comes from O(n+1).
 
yes that is obvious...
wait let me think for a sec
How come diff(S^n) is comming into the picture?
 
That's the range of the transition maps of a sphere bundle, innit?
 
In the integral $\int_{2}^{i} \frac{dz}{1-z^2}$ where the path is the semicircle $|z-1|=1, Im z \leq 0$ and the imaginary axis
Can I choose the branch $(-5\pi/4, 3\pi /4)$?
 
Sphere bundle is what? essentially fibers are sphere ?
 
Yes. The transition maps are (U_i \cap U_j) x S^n ---> (U_i \cap U_j) x S^n, homeomorphisms on the second coordinate.
Or diffeomorphisms, w/e
 
11:45 AM
Yes.
On the other hand for unit vector bundle we have $O(n+1)$
 
Right.
Hmm, now that I think about it there's a slight work involved to show that this is equivalent to O(n+1) and Diff(S^n) being homotopy equivalent.
I mean, transition functions are just associations of the overlaps of the charts to elements of O(n+1) and Diff(S^n) respectively. That isn't sufficient to prove anything.
 
I agree
 
I think what we need here is that the respectively bundles are classified by maps to BO(n+1) and BDiff(S^n), the classifying spaces.
 
ooppsss... I have no idea about this classifying bundles
Isn't there any easy way?
 
I don't think so. But what I said about classifying spaces is the formalization of the previous idea, I believe.
 
11:50 AM
What is classified bundle?
I saw this in Hatcher, but didn't read
tell me some reference
 
Classifying spaces is in Hatcher. But I am not sure if they speak of their relation with fiber bundles.
I am not actually entirely sure of sphere bundles being classified by BDiff(S^n) part either, to be honest.
The BO(n+1) part is true and not hard.
 
Ok. I'll think and discuss this problem with you in the night
I've to go now
 
If one can show this, we'd end up with a 1-1 correspondence [X, BO(n+1)] <---> [X, BDiff(S^n)] for every X, and then Yoneda lemma tells O(n+1) is homotopy eq to Diff(S^n)
And that was Mike's statement.
@Anubhav Bye.
 
12:35 PM
Hi @Balarka
 
Heya
 
@BalarkaSen That sounds real nice.
Balarka, maybe you wanna have a small look at something for me and see if you agree
(Huybrechts, again...)
 
If I can help, I certainly will.
 
11 hours ago, by Danu
@TedShifrin So what I said about the proof: (i) he calculates the cocycle of $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$, not of $K_{\hat X}$. (ii) His rule for getting the cocycle from a divisor is upside down---this is confirmed by the corollary he refers to. Also, once you flipped the cocycle to get that of $K_{\hat X}$, one had better find an excuse to flip the other one too, right? :) Otherwise they won't match.
It's just checking something I'm pretty certain about
This ^^ About proof of 2.5.5
Forget about the first part of the proof
Start at "this is a local calculation"
Also, if you don't feel like checking the proof then maybe look at this line of reasoning instead:
 
I never muddled with canonical bundles over blowups, but I'll have a look.
 
12:38 PM
12 hours ago, by Danu
Oh, never mind! I know what happened---but it seems like Huybrechts makes a rather "big" mistake in his proof.
@BalarkaSen You don't need to know anything about it.
I explain the whole line of reasoning there ^^
 
Alright.
 
You don't need the details of the proof, mostly
Just the general idea, with some specifc details
 
12:51 PM
@Danu Yeah, the choice of the cocycle is odd. I think your explanation makes sense.
 
@BalarkaSen To me, the one with the canonical one was really clear
(but in fact I disovered the problem with $\mathcal O(E)$ first)
I'll explain in my email to him... I've got like 30 typos
Just from the first 2 chapters
 
yikes
 
Okay, 25 now actually
But yeah
Not too precise...
 
1:14 PM
OK, gotta go
 
This sounds as if Yoda joined math.SE: I'm looking for a function that surjective but not injective is and this fulfills. (From this question. It is rather unclear what the OP wants, so I guess it's going to be closed and deleted sonn.)
 
@MartinSleziak Lol
 
Just to make clear, I just wanted to share the unintentional joke the OP made. I am not calling for close or delete votes. (It already has some downvotes. And closing it as unclear would certainly be deserved at the current state. But it might still be good to give OP the chance to clarify the question.)
 
user228700
1:33 PM
Hello everyone :-)
 
user228700
I've got a bit of a homework-tsy question regarding logarithms. Is anybody interested to help me clear my doubt..?
 
user228700
Can anybody tell me if there is any flaw w/ the following set of formulae/rules:(because I'm running into trouble while applying these for problems)
 
user228700
 
user228700
I generalized all the above equations as:
 
user228700
$log_b(a)≥\alpha$ →
$a≥b^{\alpha}$, $b>1$ AND
$0<a≤b^{\alpha}, $0<b<1$
 
user228700
1:47 PM
And
 
user228700
$log_b(a)≤\alpha$ →
$a≥b^{\alpha}$, $0<b<1$ AND
$0<a≤b^{\alpha}, $b>1$
 
user228700
This seems correct and all, but it doesn't work out very well when solving problems like:
 
user228700
 
user228700
(I forgot to mention that $a$, $b$ and $\alpha$ may be any real numbers or any real-valued function)
 
user228700
Anybody..? No? OK :-(
 
2:03 PM
@KaumudiHarikumar Can you say for which $t$ is $\log_{1/5} t\ge 0$?
Is it $t\ge1$ or $t\le1$?
If you can answer this, all that remains is to solve either $2x^2+7x+7\ge1$ or $2x^2+7x+7\ge1$. (Depending on the answer to the previous question.)
Similarly for the second one.
 
$E\subset\Bbb R^n$ linear subspace, $\Bbb R^n-E$ connected $\Leftrightarrow\dim E\le n-2$.

*Proof.* ($\Leftarrow$) We will show $\Bbb R^n-E$ is in fact path connected. It is sufficient to show this for $\dim E=n-2$, for any vector subspace of dimension $n-3$ or less can be realized as a subspace of an $n-2$ dimensional subspace. Let $p,q\in \Bbb R^n-E$. Let $L\subset\Bbb R^n$ be the straight line from $p$ to $q$. (We also use the notation $L=\overline{pq}$.) We set up coordinates $x^1,\dotsc, x^n$ with the origin on $E$ and with $E$ spanning the first $n-2$ coordinates, that is, $E$ is the
@BalarkaSen In case you wanted to see the final product of the connectedness proof ^^
My prof said it was "much better than what he had in mind" (i.e. the hint he gave).
 
If E is a subspace of an inner product space V, and its orthogonal complement is C, then orthogonal projection can be used for a deformation retraction V\E -> C\0.
 
@arctictern This is for an analysis, not topology, class.
 
still
 
I don't know what a deformation retraction is.
 
2:13 PM
given v,w in V, we can connect them to v',w' in C\0 by a straight line. then it suffices to show C\0 is connected.
 
nice
That's really great
Such efficiency
@arctictern I guess you don't even need to use explicitly that it's a defo retr, to argue that it doesn't change the issue of connectedness.
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak Uh, $t$?
 
2:30 PM
@KaumudiHarikumar $t$ is just a name of variable.
Like x,y,z,w,u.
So if you prefer, when is $\log_{1/5} x \ge 0$? For which values of $x$?
I still think that it is nicer to write t, since then we can write $t=2x^2+7x+7$. Writing $x=2x^2+7x+7$ would be something completely different.)
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak Well, since the base, 1/5 is positive, this is true for any $x>0$
 
I don't think that is correct.
What is $\log_{1/5} 1/5$? What is $\log_{1/5} 5$?
 
user228700
1 and -1
 
Great!
So you see that $\log_{1/5}x$ is not always positive.
So I will ask again, and since I prefer this notation, I will denote variable by $t$.
For which values of $t$ we have $\log_{1/5} t\ge 0$?
You already saw that $1/5$ is such value, but $5$ is not such value.
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak Right, yes. If the base and the number are on the same side of unity, the logarithm will be positive. If on the opposite side, it will be negative, correct?
 
2:36 PM
So $\log_{1/5} t\ge 0$ if and only if $0<t\le 1$.
Here $t$ denotes a real number?
Do we both agree on this?
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak Yes, we do.
 
And your original problem was to solve $\log_{1/5}(2x^2+7x+7)\ge0$.
Which (because of we just said), is the same as solving $0<2x^2+7x+7\le 1$.
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak Yes...
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak OK, I get it.
 
In fact, the part with $0<2x^2+7x+7$ is necessary for the expression in your inequality to be defined at all.
And the part $2x^2+7x+7\le 1$ is the part which comes from the conditions that the logarithm should be non-negative.
 
user228700
2:39 PM
Yes, yes, OK.
 
Of course, this is how it works if the base of the logarithm is smaller than one (like 1/5 or 1/3).
 
user228700
Okay, I think I can proceed with the problem set now. Thanks so much sir/ma'am! :-)
 
If the question is $\log_{5}(2x^2+7x+7)\ge0$, then it is precisely in the opposite way. I.e., $2x^2+7x+7\ge1$.
 
user228700
@MartinSleziak Yes, I got that. Thank you!
 
But from your replies it seems that it's already clear how to go about similar problems.
@KaumudiHarikumar No problem. And good luck with your studying.
 
user228700
2:41 PM
@MartinSleziak Thanks! Have a nice day!
 
@Balarka Your argument is correct, but the converse is also easy to see - if the map O(n+1) -> Diff(S^n) doesn't induce an iso on homotopy groups, you can construct bundles over spheres that either can't be given a linear structure or can be given multiple.
 
o/ Mike
 
3:26 PM
@0celo7 Good.
@Danu @arctictern You can prove more generally that chucking out a codimension 2 submanifold doesn't disconnect R^n - take a path between two points in R^n, make it transverse to the submanifold. That's disjoint.
Just sayin'
 
@BalarkaSen Yeah.
Another problem on that problem set was to show $S^1$ is not homeomorphic to $S^n$ for $n\ge 2$. Fundamental group shows this immediately, but that's cheating.
I think transversality homotopy is similarly cheating.
 
Chuck out a point
But I guess you already know that
 
@BalarkaSen Chuck out two points.
 
Ah, yes, thanks.
 
You need to disconnect $S^1$
Then use stereographic projection
Tbh, connectedness proofs like that are very unsatisfying.
 
3:33 PM
Why?
 
@BalarkaSen I'll have to think about why exactly. brb
 
@BalarkaSen But that needs a lot of machinery
Still nice.
 
@MikeMiller Thanks for checking (I don't actually know why maps to BDiff(S^n) classify sphere bundles, but maybe I'll write down a proof). I just got back, I'll ponder on what you said in a minute.
@Danu Of course it does, we're proving it for codimension 2 submanifolds in general.
 
does anyone know a good lecture series for complex analysis?
introductory
 
Not just hyperplanes.
 
3:35 PM
Yeah, that's true
So that also works for other manifolds right
 
For sure.
 
@BalarkaSen If G is a topological group that acts effectively on X, X-bundles with structure group G (transition functions are in G) are classified by maps into BG - you turn an X-bundle into a G-bundle and vice versa.
 
All pretty nice---Huybrechts uses this at some point in his book :P
 
hey @BalarkaSen did you get any answer?
 
So $\Omega^p_X$ and $\bigwedge^{p,0}X$ are identified as complex, but not as holomorphic vector bundles, is that right?
 
3:38 PM
@Anubhav Answer to what?
I did write down a proof, modulo the fact that maps to BDiff(S^n) classify sphere bundles.
 
that why homotopy equivalence of O(n+1) and diff(S^n) is enough for that question
can you show me the proof?
@BalarkaSen ?
 
I wrote it down when we discussed. Suppose every sphere bundle is a linear (i.e. appears as unit bundle of a sphere bundle). Then there is a 1-1 correspondence between [X, BO(n+1)] and [X, BDiff(S^n)]. Yoneda lemma then says BO(n+1) is homotopy eq. to BDiff(S^n). That in turn implies O(n+1) is homotopy eq to Diff(S^n).
 
Why is there a 1-1 correspondence?
Is it some kind of property of classifying bundles BG?
 
@Anubhav If Y -> Z is a homotopy equivalence the map [X,Y] -> [X,Z] is a bijection for all X.
Just write down what it means to be a homotopy equivalence, more or less.
 
ohhh...sorry, I misread your comment
Yes, but is there any easy proof available?
 
3:43 PM
@MikeMiller Um, I'm using the 1-1 correspondence of sphere bundle with [X, B(stuff)] here though. I think you're thinking about the contrapositive you said.
Which is easier, because one doesn't have to invoke Yoneda, yeah.
@Anubhav I don't think one can avoid the classification of bundles by maps to BG.
 
You don't need Yoneda. If that's a bijection for all X, it's a bijection for S^n, which by definition means it's a weak homotopy equivalence.
 
Ah, true.
 
hmm...
 
You could simplify to showing that G-bundles over S^{n+1} are in natural bijection with pi_n G without developing classifying spaces.
 
@Danu What's the difference between complex and holomorphic vector bundles?
(I don't really know the two bundles you wrote down, so I can't help. Just asking out of curiosity)
 
3:52 PM
Trivializations being biholomorphic or just smooth
(both should restrict to $\Bbb C$-linear maps on the fibers
 
Oh, so your base manifold has a complex structure?
 
Yeah, everything on complex manifolds of course
Else there is no notion of holomorphic vector bundles
 
Got it.
 
Sorry, I thought it would be implicit in most things I talk about nowadays :P
 
Yeah, I should have figured.
@MikeMiller Thanks, that makes a lot of sense. I still need to learn principal bundles - my knowledge on that is inconsistent.
 
4:02 PM
bye...now I'll go and study...
 
4:35 PM
In case somebody is interested:
in Calculus and analysis, 43 mins ago, by Saeid Nourian
I'm the author of a graphing software that is mostly used by calculus III professors and students. Would anyone here like to volunteer to try it out and give me feedback?
 
Dang it, I have to learn infinity categories now.
 
5
Q: What happens if the image of a set is empty?

arilaCan someone give me hint how to prove that for a function $f:X\rightarrow Y$ and $B\subseteq X$ we have $$f(B)=\emptyset \Rightarrow B=\emptyset \ ?$$ Is my idea that, supposing $x\in B\neq \emptyset$, we would have to have, since $f$ is a function, a $y$ such that $f(x)=y$ and therefore $y\in ...

Question on an answer:
\begin{align}
& f[B] = \varnothing \\
\equiv & \;\;\;\;\;\text{"basic property of empty set"} \\
& \langle \forall y :: y \not\in f[B] \rangle \\
\equiv & \;\;\;\;\;\text{"definition of $\;\cdot[\cdot]\;$"} \\
& \langle \forall y :: \lnot \langle \exists x : x \in B : f(x) = y \rangle \rangle \\
\equiv & \;\;\;\;\;\text{"simplify: apply DeMorgan to $\;\exists x\;$"} \\
& \langle \forall y :: \langle \forall x : x \in B : f(x) \not= y \rangle \rangle \\
\equiv & \;\;\;\;\;\text{"rearrange quantifications -- to prepare for one-point rule"} \\
 
@MikeMiller Oh no
rip
 
Are we implicitly assumed f[B] and B to be universal sets of the domain and range of f, therefore if all x and y are not in those sets, then they are automatically empty?
 
4:51 PM
So uh, correct me if I'm wrong: operations are ways to manipulate a number, like addition, subtraction, taking roots, exponentiating, etc.
And functions take an input, apply operations and give an output, right?
 
@MikeMiller Sounds nice :P
 
everything's nice
 
@SirCumference a function is a subset of the Cartensian product of domain and range
 
user116211
@SirCumference Operations and functions are same, aren't they?
 

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