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9:00 PM
which, for $n>1$, is bounded above by $1-\dotsb+\frac15$
$=0.78\bar3$
 
@AkivaWeinberger well-known results
 
Uh, wait
Sorry, the even partial sums (considered here) are bounded above by $\ln2$
and $\ln2<\sqrt2/2$
QED
 
Btw, @MikeMiller, how is Floer pronounced?
 
@AkivaWeinberger The point is not to go that far. Using limits is very simple, but a more advanced technique.
 
I thought it was Flow-er.
 
9:03 PM
in English it's what Balarka said; the proper pronunciation is more like french "Fleur"
 
Ah, Wikipedia has it
@MikeMiller Yeah, I can see that from the Wikipedia phonetic thing
So he's actually called Flör
 
Ah, it's the German thing where they add the extra "e" instead of the umlaut.
 
Yup.
 
Then Flow-er is wayyyy wrong though
 
:D
 
9:06 PM
yeah
 
If you are unsure how to pronounce it, just pronounce as "ef-el-o-e-are". Done.
 
@user1618033 So how do you do it?
 
@Balarka No, the "e" is wrong
 
I just pronounced the words.
 
Pronounce it "ef-el-o umlaut-r"
 
9:09 PM
:|
You Germans.
 
y'all got work to do
 
This is the first time I have been called a German :o
Actually, I'm hobbying at the moment!
 
I always thought German and Dutch people have a lot in common.
Something something same origin. Dunno.
 
We do, but we like to think we were different in the years 1933 ~ 1945
 
Yeah, Hitler was a German, not a Dutch.
That's the main difference.
 
9:14 PM
No, he was Austrian
 
Oh?
 
He was born in Austria, that's about it.
 
I googled. OK, that is news to me.
 
@AkivaWeinberger let's see first if anyone comes up with a brilliant proof
I bet @Semiclassical would hit it.
 
9:41 PM
hmm?
 
@Semiclassical I was referring to $$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n+k}<\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}, \ n>1$$
 
ahh
that gives an easy proof of the divergence of the harmonic sum. pretty sure i've seen it before, but i don't remember the proof off the top of my head (aka it's a fine problem for me to get distracted by :p)
 
actually, derp
other way around
i looked at that too fast. usually one shows a lower bound for that sum, and that's what can be used for a proof
 
Hi guys!
 
9:45 PM
no worry
 
I had a doubt with regard to the fundamental bridge in probability mentioned here:(hcs.harvard.edu/cs50-probability/fundamentalbridge.php)
 
also, do you actually need $n$ strictly greater than 1?
the case of $n=1$ seems to satisfy the bound just fine.
 
Is this only true for indicator functions?
 
@Semiclassical The inequality holds, but how to show that elementarily? :D
 
not sure I follow. all I mean is that there seems no reason to write it as $n>1$ instead of $n\geq 1$
 
9:50 PM
@Semiclassical Sure, it's OK.
 
mmkay
 
@Semiclassical $n\ge1$ is perfectly fine. I initially wanted to post a double inequality and in the left-hand side there was an issue for $n=1$.
 
Cutting out that part, things are fine as you suggested.
I might simply tell you how to do it, but it's such a shame. You miss so much fun. No need for any sophisticated tool.
 
@user1618033 I can see one proof
 
9:58 PM
@Semiclassical hehe, good!!!
 
namely, the integral estimate applied to that sum gives the upper bound log(2)<sqrt(2)/2
 
@Semiclassical If you're sure of it, don't tell it now.
@Semiclassical aaaaaaaa, not this one ...
 
i didn't think you'd like that one :p
2
 
@Semiclassical Something simpler :D
 
eh, that log inequality is pretty simple by my lights
is it a proof without any calculus at all?
 
10:01 PM
@Semiclassical sure
 
okay. that might be the better way to frame it, then.
 
@MikeMiller I had a look and I think I can do almost all problems for chapter 7.
*from, not for.
 
@robjohn hey, the question I posed previously I'm sure is exactly the type of quation you like a lot :D
 
I don't remedmber which I found interesting.
 
Show that $$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n+k}<\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$$
By elementary means.
 
10:06 PM
Evidently, calculus doesn't count as elementary :p
 
@Semiclassical evidently :D
 
I found it interesting that Morse functions are stable.
But not so surprising.
 
It's just continuity of second derivative.
 
Hello @robjohn
Did you see my question:
1
Q: Proof that estimate holds

EvindaTheorem: Let $U$ be a bounded , open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ , and suppose $\partial{U}$ is $C^1$. Assume $1 \leq p<n$, and $u \in W^{1,p}(U)$. Then $u \in L^{p^{\ast}}(U)$ , with the estimate $||u||_{L^{p^{\ast}}}(U) \leq C ||u||_{W^{1,p}(U)}$, the constant $C$ depending only on $p,n$, and $U$....

Do you have an idea?
 
Right, if I perturb $f$ slightly, $D(\nabla f)$ remains nondegenerate.
 
10:10 PM
Go ahead with the chapter 8 stuff. I maintain from earlier that if you're not being challenged you should supplement with Hirsch, doing most of the exercises (there are many and they are difficult).
 
I'll have a look at that then. I'm just afraid of taking too high a pace, but I'll have a look if you say so.
 
Hirsch covers the same material with fewer words and more content. I'm not suggesting you speed up, just that you do more.
I note that I don't actually know how to do a nice little chunk of Hirsch problems.
Without significant effort, anyway.
 
Alright, understood. I'm downloading it right now.
 
In general it's probably good to start by doing appropriate G&P sections w problems and then tackling Hirsch.
 
I'll keep that in mind. Thanks.
 
10:17 PM
G&P is Guillemin and Pollack, right?
 
yeah
 
Yeah, we've used that book in one class as well, though I have learned close to nothing in that class
 
any suggestions on my questions?
 
@user1618033 what i'm playing with right now is take the sum, square it out, and then write terms $\frac{1}{(n+j)(n+k)}$ as a difference of fractions
 
@Semiclassical It doesn't sound bad.
 
10:20 PM
not going anywhere terribly quick, though
 
I am a bit confused as how the expected value of a random variable differs from the the random variable itself when considering indicator functions. Say there is a geometric distribution. X means the number of the failures before success, E(X) means the expected number of failures.
Now I want to compute the Expected value given p= prob. of success and q otherwise.
Let c=E(X);
Now I do start-step analysis. c=0.p+(1+c)q
In this step, I don't understand the coefficient of q. In (1+c), 1 makes sense but why c?
Is the slightly question clear?
 
I don't get it, but then again, I'm not that good at probability.
 
It is mostly a silly question, I am just learning probability theory.
hmm..
 
10:42 PM
Oh, so embedding manifolds in Euclidean space is much easier than Whitney. It's just gluing the graphs of the coordinate charts by a partition of unity. I should have realized that way earlier.
Well, compact manifolds.
 
is that in the early pages of h-dawg?
 
lol at h-dawg. yes/
at first glance it seems harder to read than G-P, mainly because more symbols and less words. but I suppose that will come with practice.
 
Sorry for asking again, does my question make sense. When computing the expected value: it is the kp^kq^k. So the coefficient is the value of the random variable. But in my example it is the expected value at the next step which confuses me.
 
You should post it as a question in MSE instead of asking multiple times as it is less likely that you'd get an answer and more likely that people will be annoyed by getting spammed by the same question getting asked so many times, even though you do mention that you are sorry for it.
I don't think any of us who are in the chat right now are capable of answering the stuff you are asking.
 
Oh sorry, my bad. Thanks for the suggestion! I have posted a question now.
 
11:05 PM
Ah, the Whitney embedding theorem is explained very neatly in Hirsch.
I noted this before, and I'll note it again that it is funny how much similar but subtler it is to the analogous algebraic geometry theorem.
 
11:27 PM
G&P is uniformly easier to read than Hirsch (different audiences). Hirsch just does many things not in G&P.
 
how could i use green's theorem to prove this lemma? i.imgur.com/ertBwwP.png
 
@AbhishekBhatia You need to take a step back and reevaluate what a random variable is.
That is where your confusion lies.
In your probability space, you have a set of elementary events $\Omega$. A random variable is a function $X : \Omega \to \mathbb R$. Why do we need this function?
One reason we need this function is to be able to describe measured relationships between events.
If you flip five coins, you can have two events $HHHTT$ and $HTHTT$. What does it mean for $HHHTT>HTHTT$? Absolutely nothing.
Now, if we construct the random variable $\text{Number of Heads} : \Omega \to \mathbb R$, we can do something with it.
 
11:47 PM
@MikeMiller Fair enough.
 
$\text{Number of Heads}(HHHTT) = 3$
$\text{Number of Heads}(HTHTT) = 2$
@AbhishekBhatia Now, Random Variables are functions defined over a probability space. The expectation function is a function from Random Variables to numbers. Do you see how these are two completely different mathematical objects?
 
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