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12:00 AM
Enigma
 
They made a nice movie about that.
 
@BalarkaSen if I work through the problems in hatcher and munkres would you like to check my proofs and providing feedbacks ?
 
You can only brag if they're done well, Balarka.
 
The "right" of bragging?
 
@L33ter I can help depending on what the problem is.
 
12:03 AM
My problem happens to be related to plumbing, at the moment :(
 
@TedShifrin I think I have done them well :) I will write the proofs up after I finish up revision to chapter 6, which should get done by tomorrow.
 
Don't forget the extra chapter 6 problems ...
 
Yep, I haven't.
Oh, and remember I asked you whether if a multivariable function $f$ admits a 2nd order Taylor polynomial then $f$ is $C^2$? I think the answer is yes.
 
which book is that ?
 
It seems like it's really a corollary of the fact that Hessian is the same as derivative of $Df : \Bbb R^n \to L(\Bbb R^n, \Bbb R) \cong \Bbb R^n$.
@L33ter "Multivariable Mathematics".
 
12:07 AM
I vote no, Balarka ... In any event, you only mean C^2 at the point ...
 
oh yeah that reminds me I will buy that book btw @TedShifrin
 
I'm flattered, Karim, but I'm not trying to make you spend money.
 
Yes, sorry, $C^2$ at the point. Well, note that by assumption $f(a + h) = f(a) + Df(a)h + 1/2 h^T \cdot Hf \cdot h + o(h^2)$. Now differentiate both sides w.r.t $h$ to get $Df(a + h) = Df(a) + Hf \cdot h + o(h)$. That says $Hf$ is the derivative of $Df$, doesn't it? So it's the Hessian matrix.
 
Still doesn't prove the second derivative is continuous?
 
Oops, I didn't mean $C^2$. I meant the second partials exist. My bad.
 
12:10 AM
I want to learn multi-variable analysis and this semester I am marking for vector calculus, so it makes sense to use the money on your book :D .
 
Of course, $C^2$ should be dead wrong even in the single variable setting.
 
It is ...
Karim, there's lots for you to learn ...
 
Many continuations today, @Ted.
 
Analytic continuations?
 
I bet some sin(1/x) type thing gives me a counterexample.
 
12:14 AM
I bet that's right.
 
What's the point of wagering if there are no opponents? :)
 
can someone help me with analytic number theory please?
 
I mean, we're both betting for the same thing ...
 
@Brennan: No number theory experts here ...
 
ok thanks anyway
 
12:16 AM
@Brennan.Tobias Ping mixedmath, although he's rather irregular in here.
@TedShifrin Well, we're essentially just looking for double differentiable functions such that 2nd derivative is not continuous, really.
 
wait @BalarkaSen
your argument is wrong
 
So $x^3 \sin(1/x)$ for $x \neq 0$ and $f(0) = 0$ works fine.
 
I just thought about it
you constructed the U and V to be disjoint
it can be modified to be right though
 
@L33ter Where is it wrong?
 
You constructed them to be disjoint, so $X - (U \cup V) = (X - U) \cap (X - V) = \emptyset$
which is open
If you modify it however, so you will get the same argument that I have.
 
12:22 AM
@L33ter Why is it true that $U^c \cap V^c$ is empty??
 
A better quesuon, Balarka: If $f(x)=o(x^2)$ does that mean $f''(0)=0$?
 
$[0, 1]$ and $[2, 3]$ are disjoint in $\Bbb R$. But their complements intersect.
Indeed, $U^c \cap V^c = (U \cup V)^c$ which is $A$, not empty.
This is set theory.
 
yeah I am sorry my mistake my brain got confused with something else.
Somehow I recalled that you constructed V and U to be disjoint infinite sets of X.
 
Indeed. Draw pictures, you think too formally and end up being confuzzled.
@L33ter U and V are disjoint. But that doesn't mean their complements are too.
 
Yeah I think to analytically I need to stop that
 
12:25 AM
@TedShifrin Hum. Let's see.
 
No, I mean I thought how you constructed U and V is that you started with infinite disjoint subsets of X. I forgot about A.
 
Not analytically, Karim. More formally/symbolically.
 
yeah
 
@TedShifrin What is $f$?
 
One thing my topology professor told me to do is that whenever I have argument I started doing something wrong, then I should see where it leads me to get better understanding of what I did wrong.
and also understand more
 
12:28 AM
$f\colon \Bbb R\to\Bbb R$, say, @MikeM. We're discussion whether having a Taylor polynomial at $0$ implies the appropriate number of derivatives exist at $0$.
 
It's just any function of sets?
 
Huh?
 
You've told me nothing about what you're assuming about $f$.
 
It's twice diffable. Otherwise $f''(0)$ doesn't make sense.
 
NO, @Balarka.
 
12:30 AM
Edited.
 
I'm assuming $f(x)= o(x^2)$ at $0$. That's all.
I'm asking whether that even implies $f$ is twice differentiable at $0$.
 
Which implies continuous at 0, but a priori, no other assumptions. OK.
That's what I was looking for.
 
@TedShifrin Ar, alright.
 
I had that in the question you linked, @MikeM, but ok.
 
@Ted: It was not clear that you weren't assuming anything further.
 
12:31 AM
@TedShifrin I doubt this.
 
Are we betting? :)
 
You bet.
[disclaimer] that was an intentional pun [/disclaimer]
Just to make sure this time I am recognized.
 
That's not even a pun.
Using the same word in the same context does not qualify as a pun.
 
Well, there was a missing "ing".
 
glares
 
12:53 AM
@TedShifrin Hm. I can't seem to find a counterexample. If you give me till tomorrow, I can come up with a counterexample (or a proof, though I highly doubt if it's really true).
It's about 6 AM here and I am pretty sleepy :)
 
You were supposed to be in bed hours ago.
 
I am naturally nocturnal.
 
You should change your name to The Owl.
 
Wait a minute, I am confusing a few notations. $f = o(g)$ means $f(x)/g(x) \to 0$ as $x \to 0$ or $f(x)/g(x) \to 0$ as $x \to \infty$?
 
We're talking about at $0$, of course.
 
1:00 AM
Right, phew.
 
It can mean either, depending on context.
 
Of course, the latter doesn't make much sense in the given context. This means I should head to bed.
 
Uh huh.
 
G'night.
 
G'night.
 
 
1 hour later…
2:13 AM
I finally got my Cayley table right, I think wow! It's actually quite simple once you get it.
 
 
2 hours later…
4:04 AM
Hello!
 
4:25 AM
hi
 
4:46 AM
When proving the limit of some sequence in the form, $\frac{p(n)}{q(n)}$ I can just prove the limit of a fraction with the upper bound of $p(n)$ as the numerator, and the lower bound of $q(n)$ as the denominator. Are there any constraints as to which upper/lower bounds I can choose?
 
hello
 
5:02 AM
do you have knowledge of topological groups
 
What's your question @Mambo
 
Consider a square integrable function on circle
haar measure is considered
Say f
Let $A = \{f_g : f_g (x) = f(g^{-1}x , g \in \mathbb{S}^1)\}$
 
Sorry , but I have no knowledge of haar measures. You can ask Daniel Fischer I guess.
 
no problem. Do you know any measure on circle
 
5:18 AM
Actually I just did intro of topological groups from munkres. So I don't know much. I just thought of looking at the question @Mambo
 
What do yo do
@Albas
 
So, I know that, in $\Bbb R^4$, one can link two spheres (just like one can link two loops in $\Bbb R^3$). What would the "3D shadow" (i.e. the projection onto three coordinates) of that look like?
 
 
1 hour later…
6:46 AM
I am doing a HW: is polytope the same as convex hull? i.e. given set of generators. The problem says P is polytope of these generators. Is this the same thing as saying the convex hull of the generators?
 
7:42 AM
Does a "approximately equal" to b mean a is close to b but not strictly not equal to it? Or does it mean a is close to b and may be equal to it?
 
8:01 AM
@Riggs I would think it means close to b but not strictly equal to it.
 
thanks
 
I agree
An approximation is anything that is similar but not exactly equal to something else. The term can be applied to various properties (e.g., value, quantity, image, description) that are nearly, but not exactly correct; similar, but not exactly the same (e.g., the approximate time was 10 o'clock). Although approximation is most often applied to numbers, it is also frequently applied to such things as mathematical functions, shapes, and physical laws. In science, approximation can refer to using a simpler process or model when the correct model is difficult to use. An approximate model is used to...
 
 
1 hour later…
9:20 AM
@AkivaWeinberger I am no knot theorist, but I'd think in general the projection need not even be an embedding of disjoint union of $S^1$'s in $\Bbb R^3$, let alone a link. There are things called spun knots, though, for which I believe the slices are all knots.
 
9:33 AM
Hi @BalarkaSen
Funny question from intro to analysis: Do you know any sequences in the extended reals such that $\lim (a_n b_n)\neq \lim a_n \lim b_n$?
There has to be some canonical example
 
10:18 AM
@Danu I haven't really worked with extended reals, do you have $+\infty \cdot 0 = 0$ there? In that case, $a_n = 1/n$ and $b_n = n$ works of course.
Actually, $a_n = 1/n$ and $b_n = n$ works anyway, because $\lim a_nb_n = 1$ and $\lim a_n \lim b_n$ wouldn't be defined otherwise.
However, I am certain it is true that if $\lim a_n, \lim b_n$ are both finite, or one is finite and the other is $\pm \infty$ or both are $\pm \infty$, then $\lim a_nb_n = \lim a_n \lim b_n$.
 
11:02 AM
Yes, yes
 
@Mambo I am a high school student
 
@BalarkaSen I of course already thought about the $n^{\pm 1}$ example, but I wasn't sure how to really prove that this cannot be given any meaning---though there may be nothing deep to it.
Even simpler is then $0$ and $n$
 
@Danu There is nothing to prove. It depends on how arithmetic works on the extended reals, which I am unfamiliar with. Either way, if $\pm \infty \cdot 0 = 0$, or $\pm \infty \cdot \infty$ is undefined, in both cases the example works.
(Typo, I meant $\pm \infty \cdot 0$).
 
@BalarkaSen I don't think arithmetic works at all in the extended real actually (or rather, we lose too many of the basic rules to call it arithmetic)
So however you define the multiplication of stuff involving infinity, you can find sequences where the product fails to converge to the product
 
 
1 hour later…
12:38 PM
Please give an example of partial ordered set with unique maximal element which has no maximum element
 
Uh oh I have forgotten how to prove the inverse function theorem.
 
@Silent consider adding an extra element to the integers, and let it be not related to any integers.
 
@TobiasKildetoft, oh !!! Thank you so much.
@TobiasKildetoft, but isn't that extra element greater than every integer and hence maximum?
 
That extra element isn't related to any integer.
 
@Silent No, as it is not related to any integers, it is not greater than any of them
 
12:47 PM
Oh sorru, I thought of $\omega_+=\omega\cup\{\omega\}$
 
No need to apulugize.
 
:)
 
1:42 PM
hey @BalarkaSen
 
@iwriteonbananas Hi.
 
@BalarkaSen Have you discovered anything new regarding the Hawaiian problem?
 
Nope, I haven't thought about it.
 
Ok, I have but with no success. I'm gonna post a question
 
Sure, as you wish.
 
1:47 PM
Btw. I randomly remembered the problem that Mike gave me a while ago: determine the smallest number which is a degree of a map $\Bbb RP^3\to L(3,1)$
Managed to figure it out now
answer is 3.
 
We had solved it, I think.
 
No, we couldn't figure out whether there exists a degree 2 map
 
Wasn't that done by just looking at $\pi_1$?
Poincare duality plus that.
 
No, that was for degree 1.
 
If you say so. I am not going to think about it right now because I am doing calculus :)
 
1:48 PM
sure, don't wanna drag you into it then
 
2:00 PM
@iwriteonbananas damn you got me curious. what's your proof?
 
:D
$\pi:S^3\to L(3,1)$ be the covering map
Assume there's a degree 2 map $f:\Bbb RP^3\to L(3,1)$
the composition $S^3\to \Bbb RP^3\stackrel{f}{\to}L(3,1)$ can be lifted
 
Oh, that's a cute idea.
 
call the lift $g$
then use multiplicativiy of degree and we get
$4=3\cdot \deg(g)$
 
Right, which is crap.
 
2:03 PM
Very nice.
I did wondered if lifting would help, but couldn't find the correct map to lift. Excellent observation.
@iwriteonbananas I have been thinking a bit about the subtle difference between $C^k$ and $k$ times differentiability.
 
@BalarkaSen It took me forever to figure out that we could do that
@BalarkaSen What've you been thinking?
 
@iwriteonbananas :) Well, you figured it out eventually, that's what matters. I am keeping this trick in my head.
@iwriteonbananas It seems lots of classical results can be generalized by weakening $C^k$ by some easier differentiability conditions.
E.g.
It's a standard result that if $f : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R$ is $C^2$ then mixed partials of $f$ of order 2 are the same, right?
 
Indeed
 
Turns out a weaker result is true: assume $f$ is twice differentiable, that is, $Df : \Bbb R^n \to L(\Bbb R^n, \Bbb R) \cong \Bbb R^n$ is differentiable as a matrix-valued function. This is equivalent to assuming $\partial f/\partial x$ and $\partial f/\partial y$ are differentiable. Then mixed partials of $f$ of order 2 are the same.
 
That's a stronger result, isn't it?
:D
 
2:16 PM
I meant a result with weaker condition :)
 
Here's something even more interesting.
The inverse function theorem says if $f : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ is a $C^1$ function such that $Df(a)$ is invertible for some $a \in \Bbb R^n$, then $f$ is a local homeomorphism around $a$.
You can replace $C^1$ by everywhere differentiability and the result still remains true.
 
morning
 
Morning, @Semiclassical.
 
i forget, did i ever explain what i meant re: that one optimization problem? the one i suggested doing a $x=t^2$ substitution on, if memory serves
 
2:19 PM
nope, I think you didn't.
 
@BalarkaSen Ok, I didn't know that
 
mmkay
 
Hey Semi
 
hiya
if i remember right, after the change of variables, you had something like $(y-2t)(y-t)$ for $t\geq 0$ and real $y$
 
@iwriteonbananas I find it pretty surprising.
 
2:21 PM
@BalarkaSen Haven't thought about that kind of stuff since my real analysis course over a year ago
 
which has a saddle point at the origin, and vanishes identically along the lines $y=t,y=2t$
 
@Semiclassical Uh, the function was $(y - 2z)(y - z^2)$, iirc.
 
$(y-2z^2)$, i think?
 
Oh, sorry, you're right.
Yes.
 
right. hence $t=z^2$ is the relevant substitution
 
2:23 PM
Right. I am not sure what you want to do with that sub though.
 
well, that's a strictly increasing function for $z\geq 0$, so it preserves extrema in the right half-plane
so if i know how things work in $(t,y)$ space i know about $(z,y)$ as well
 
well, the problem was to prove that the origin is a critical point restricted to any line through origin, but I already told you a proof of that.
does switching to $(t, y)$ tells you something more insightful?
 
depends on what you mean by more insightful, perhaps?
 
I mean, I am not sure what your goal is.
What do you want to prove?
 
well, here's where i was going. you've got that the gradient in $(t,y)$ space is $(4t-3y)e_t+(2y-3t)e_y$
(where those are the unit basis vectors)
 
2:28 PM
Yes.
 
...now i'm forgetting where I was going with this.
 
@iwriteonbananas I think what I said above could be misleading. I meant if $f$ is everywhere differentiable and the derivative is everywhere invertible, then $f$ is a local homeomorphism.
@Semiclassical Were you trying to prove that gradient descent around the origin leads me down the origin, or something of that sort?
Which would be nice, because the origin isn't really a minimum, even though it is restricted to each line.
 
well, it's a saddle point
 
No.
 
in $(t,y)$ space it is
 
2:31 PM
In the $(t, y)$ plane, yes.
But not in the $(z, y)$ plane. Indeed, the Hessian is degenerate at $(0, 0)$.
 
and given that it's just a quadratic in $(t,y)$ there should be lines of steepest ascent and descent
which, returning to $(z,y)$, imply parabolas of steepest ascent and descent
 
Right.
 
unfortunately, my brain is being silly about something
there's also the whole $t\geq 0$ thing with that mapping, but that's just symmetry
 
I am not sure what you are referring to.
 
A function f : N
+ → N
+, defined on the set of positive integers N
+, satisfies the following
properties:
f(n) = f(n/2) if nis even
f(n) = f(n+5) if nis odd
Let R = {i|∃ j : f(j) = i} be the set of distinct values that f takes. What is the maximum possible size of R?
 
2:36 PM
oh, just the fact that the mapping $t=z^2$ is two-to-one
 
ah, ok.
 
but that's easy in this case since knowing the behavior for $z\geq 0$ gives the same for $z\leq 0$
 
@Semiclassical Speaking of, did you see the question Ted posed yesterday?
 
the o(x^2) one?
 
Yep. If $f$ is a C^0 single variable function with $f(x) = o(x^2)$ near $0$, then it's twice differentiable at $0$.
I think I proved that it is true.
 
2:38 PM
i think he posed it as "is it true"?
 
Yeah.
 
i was wondering about that myself
i couldn't see a counterexample, but being able to imagine a counterexample by myself is a sufficient but not necessary condition for there to be one :)
 
I searched a bit for a counterexample this morning, but when I didn't find one I tried to prove it and it turned out it's true :P
 
neat
i gotta go for now, though
 
bubye! have a nice day.
 
3:40 PM
hi @BalarkaSen
 
4:01 PM
Hi @L33ter.
 
I have an exam on metric spaces and stuff in 7 hours QQ
A lot of it isn't really fundamentally hard; it's just a lot of new precise terminology at the same time
 
Hi @AkivaWeinberger.
 
4:22 PM
@GPhys: You'll do fine. Or maybe you won't. In either case, it's much too late to worry.
4
 
4:32 PM
Hello@Balarka
 
4:47 PM
hi chat
 
Hi @Albas.
 
So I'm trying to wrap my head around homology
 
Homology is good stuff.
 
Confusing, though.
 
Which bit, @Akiva?
 
4:54 PM
The beginning
I've only just started
 
Hello people,a major question from me to you all.Is anybody willing to partake in a project to create open mathematical books which are on the par with quality and rigor to the "standard" aka Spivaks Calculus,Jech Set theory and so on ?
 
There's this big theorem about long exact sequences and homologies
 
You need to be specific than that if you want help, @Akiva.
 
@TheCoolDrop Wikibooks exists
 
Yes but their quality is questionable and not on the par with "standard" textbooks
 
4:56 PM
So how would your project be any different?
Theoretically, you could just ask us to help improve WikiBooks pages.
 
@AkivaWeinberger Are you referring to the long exact sequence of homologies of short exact sequence of chain complexes? Where do you feel confused about it?
 
True,but wikipages do not offer high quality,older projects are harder to refactor ,they do not have pdf versions avilable,they do not have style of proper latex written books and honestly I do not think they enjoy quite high credibility among readers
 
The whole proof of that theorem on how $\dotsb\to\tilde H_n(A)\to\tilde H_n(X)\to\tilde H_n(X/A)\to\tilde H_{n-1}(A)\to\dotsb$ is exact
 
The intent here is that everything should be community reviewed first and structured according to predefined standars,with room for improvement.Idea came from creation of HOTT book,which started on github and evolved into something quite great
 
5:00 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Your sequence is wrong, by the way.
 
Sorry, I misread the indices.
 
Homotopy Type Theory
 
Ah
Well, I'm not enough of an expert in anything to partake in a project like that, but it certainly sounds interesting and I wish you luck
 
github.com/VanioBegic/Micromathics is the link to the project.I think you are more of an expert than me,idea relies on community and not solo knowledge.Take a look around if you have time.Any input will be appreciated
 
5:04 PM
Traditionally, books are written by experts, because experts alone tend to have the appropriate knowledge of the field and its pedagogy to decide how it should best be written (and to do so in a competent way). I see this as the bigger challenge of a WikiBooks-type project than the number of people who are willing to participate.
HoTT worked out well because Voevodsky was working on it, to my understanding; but in any case it had a number of people who were at the IAS program doing so.
 
books need editors, and editors need expertise
 
Certainly massive book collaborations exist: see Bourbaki or Besse. But I tend not to have much faith in a book written by and for non-experts.
 
I just noticed that Hatcher writes "If there was" rather than "If there were" at one point.
 
@AkivaWeinberger Hatcher's proof is rather algebraic, but you can think about it at the chain level. It's actually quite geometric.
The real deal is the construction of the snake map, the rest is more or less straightforward.
You can define the snake map $H_n(X, A) \to H_{n-1}(A)$ as follows. Take a relative cycle $\alpha$, i.e., a chain in $X$ with boundary $\partial \alpha$ inside $A$. Then define $[\alpha] \mapsto [\partial \alpha]$. This is well-defined, and is precisely the snake map.
 
I feel like I need to think of a few examples for it to click in
To see why it's exact, I mean
Why is it called "exact," anyway?
 
5:20 PM
Geometrically, $H_n(A) \to H_n(X) \to H_n(X, A)$ is exact because the kernel of the 2nd map is precisely the collection of cycles in $A$, because those are the ones which are rel-ed off in $H_n(X, A)$. But that's the same as the image of the 1st.
The snake map bit is nontrivial, again, but can be seen geometrically. Try thinking about it.
If you want an example, $(D^2, \partial D^2)$ is ideal.
@AkivaWeinberger Maybe because they are a special kind of chain complexes, where $\text{im} \partial$ is exactly equal to $\ker{\partial}$, rather than being contained in it.
 
You can say that about anything that involves two sets being equal, though
That they're exactly equal
 
No, I mean, in chain complexes, image is contained in kernel. But in this case they are exactly equal.
 
I guess
 
I have to go study right now but feel free to ping if you have questions.
 
OK
Good luck with whatever you're studying for
 
5:26 PM
I am studying multivariable calculus :)
 
Hello!
 
5:51 PM
hi
 
6:11 PM
hi
 
6:27 PM
hi
 
@SemiC: My proof has a flaw. I think what I have proved is that if $f$ is continuously differentiable around $0$, $f(x) = o(x^2)$, then $f''(0)$ exists and is $0$.
 
so $f$ being assumed as $C^1$ at zero rather than $C^0$?
 
Right.
Not at $0$, but at a small interval around $0$.
 
right
hmm. supposing one wanted to generate a counterexample, what we'd need
defining $g(x)=f(x)/x^2$, we require $g(x)\in C^0$ and $g(x)\to 0$.
 
6:36 PM
(1) $f'$ needs to be discontinuous at $0$ (2) $f(x) = o(x^2)$
 
for there to be a counterexample, we need $g''(x)$ to fail to exist
right?
 
that's true.
@Semiclassical If you find a counterexample, ping me, but don't reveal. I want to come up with one myself :)
 
fair enough
what i'd tried was stuff like $x^3 \log x$, but it never quite worked
 
That's very nice around $0$, so can never work.
$f$ really needs to be a modified $\sin(1/x)$ like object.
 
well, i had in mind the fact that $x\log x$ goes to zero at zero but its first derivative diverges
 
6:44 PM
Uh, wait a second, that thing is not even defined at $0$.
We're looking for functions $\Bbb R \to \Bbb R$.
 
eh, the discontinuity at zero is removable if you work with $x\geq 0$, and that constraint can be removed by replacing $x\to |x|$
@balarka but i think i found an example along the lines you suggested
 
ok, I see what you mean. Yes, but evidently second derivative exists.
 
yeah. a reasonable idea, but didn't work
 
@Semiclassical Hmm.
 
6:59 PM
I cannot make sense of anything in this post.
 

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