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12:00 PM
@Soham HP was good...?
 
Cool new topology on $\Bbb R$: sets $O\subset\Bbb R$ such that every point in $O$ is contained in some half-open interval $\subset O$.
@BalarkaSen No. Of course not.
That's the thing: when speaking of crap that goes for film adaptations, HP comes to mind first.
 
I thought it was pretty good.
 
Ah, they are very unfaithful to the books.
Although not as much as Hobbit part 2. :P
 
Yes, well, the adaptation was ok, but the stories of the books are silly.
Thus, I don't like the movies too.
@SohamChowdhury I haven't even bothered seeing it.
 
That romantic subplot out of nowhere was pretty lol. Anyway.
Topology on $\Bbb R$ made of all half-open intervals and $\emptyset$ is just the same as discrete, right?
 
12:03 PM
huh?
 
oh, wait. that's not even a topology.
 
you meant generated by those.
but even then it's not discrete.
it's called the Sorgenfrey topology, iirc
 
@Chris'ssistheartist Is that supposed to be easy ? O_o
 
@Hippalectryon Of course, one line, no more.
 
want another hint, @Remember?
 
12:05 PM
hm. but you get every point separately: $(a-\epsilon,a]\cap[a,a+\epsilon)$.
 
@BalarkaSen no
I think I figured it
 
or am I being stupid?
 
you're being stupid.
:P
@Rememberme ok?
 
as usual. :P
oh. only right-open intervals, that's why, @Balarka.
 
Well there will be some point according to my function which will map to 0 I just have to find that point.....
Isn't it @BalarkaSen
 
12:06 PM
yes, you're right. but you'll never find that point if you can't get your quantifiers right, @Remember
what does it mean to say $X$ is not path connected?
 
♫ ♫ "quantifier na lagale, hobe na bhalo chhele . . . " ♫ ♫
 
haha
 
I should go.
 
It means that for some pair x_1,x_2 the properties given by you wont satisfy...
Sorry I am.on my phone so no latex @BalarkaSen
Haha@Soham
 
for some, right. so you want some pair (x_0, x_1) such that $f : t \mapsto x_0t + x_1(1-t)$ doesn't lie in $\Bbb R^2-\{0, 0\}$, i.e., crosses the origin once. you have to find that pair.
recall that $f$ is the straightline joining $x_0$ and $x_1$. now think about this.
 
12:12 PM
@BalarkaSen did you think about the kuratowski set I asked you about....
 
nope, I decided I didn't want to think about it :)
besides, I have a lot to get done.
 
Oh... :)
 
@Hippalectryon maybe we should ask for some opinions on main?
 
I think I will post that as an question....
 
sure, go on.
let me know when you have done this path connectedness problem.
(to get you interested : path connectedness is an important criterion of topological spaces that's used in the construction of fundamental groups)
 
12:16 PM
Okay i think in few minutes or so... Also I got an idea for the answer for it...
I have to just find the equation of a curve@BalarkaSen
I knew it was coming @BalarkaSen :p
 
No, I didn't tell you to find the equation of the curve. I just asked what makes $f : t \mapsto x_0t + x_1(1 - t)$ fail in $\Bbb R^2 - (0, 0)$.
 
@Hippalectryon or better drop it, I feel I only receive horrible answers. :-)
 
If you can figure this out, finding the equation is no problem. You can take that as an exercise if you want afterwards, but I don't want you to construct an equation. Too tedious.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist Well you can always try after a few days if you still don't have anything satisfying enough
 
Okhay...
 
12:18 PM
@Hippalectryon I have one line proof but I wanted to see the way people think.
@Hippalectryon send an e-mail to all those tough professors and ask them all to find a solutin on half a line. :-)
@Hippalectryon I'm not kidding.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist Ugh I don't know many tough professors, and the few I know would probably see it as a waste of their time
 
In my book what I used will be called a star ... (something)
 
They're into more mainstream maths
 
@BalarkaSen ever the thoughtful teacher :P
 
12:31 PM
hahaha
 
@BalarkaSen and this is straight homotopy-ish. you're preparing him?
 
I know you guys will never do any of my problem if I don't give reference to enough motivations.
 
I sort of like Hatcher's notes. I think I'll have a good time with his text later.
 
@Hippalectryon Sometimes I talk as if I was arrogant, but I'm just very nice. :-)
 
And for you people, they seem to come easy enough. "motivations" = "big names I don't understand"
 
12:32 PM
or "things I want to study"?
 
nah.
 
but I don't want to get into this argument again.
 
now you want to study algebraic number theory instead of algebraic topology.
yeah, me neither.
 
no, not really.
not right now.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist :D
 
12:33 PM
@SohamChowdhury no, no. those're just basic things about paths.
 
but I will, of course. just like you'll study algebraic geometry.
 
homotopies are not point-set topology.
 
@Hippalectryon :D
 
@Soham algebraic topology and algebraic number theory don't go very well, keep that in mind. well, not unless you want to be an arithmetic geometer.
 
arithmetic topology is a thing too, I've heard.
 
12:35 PM
By "I will study algebraic geometry", I don't mean "algebraic geometry is so cool". I just mean I will study it, next year.
 
but enough fantasizing. worst case, I end up studying algebraic geometry. all that cohomology stuff is in there, too, right?
 
yes, @Soham. more like a topic, but I am not knowledgeable enough.
of different tastes.
 
@SohamChowdhury Yes, there is also plenty of cohomology in algebraic geometry
 
like I said, you don't want to do cohomology from alg. top. and cohomology from alg. geo. both unless you want to do algebraic/arithmetic geometry.
 
12:37 PM
@BalarkaSen It is the same basic idea in both cases
 
like I can study all those things at the same time. I'm too dumb.
 
surely singular cohomology and etale cohomology are vastly different?
I mean, both are a cohomology theory, sure.
 
anyway, however much you may think it's just an infatuation, Balarka, I genuinely am interested in topology right now. and I have a bunch of things I want to study after that. haven't really decided, and I don't even think I should think that far ahead.
there's just so much cool stuff to explore. it honestly gives me chills sometimes. :)
 
@BalarkaSen Most cohomology boils down do picking a resolution and applying a functor (and then taking (co)homology of the resulting complex)
 
@SohamChowdhury I know you're interested in topology, because you're studying topology.
 
12:39 PM
yes, but it's not just a passing fancy
 
But you're not interested in algebraic topology :P Just see, I told you about p-adics, and you jumped up saying I'd like to do algebraic number theory instead.
@SohamChowdhury Yes, it's not.
 
@BalarkaSen tsk, tsk not "instead".
"as well, later".
 
shakes head
:P
 
I want to learn about -- don't kill me -- higher-dimensional holes.
runs for his life
 
Just do what you're studying right now.
 
12:41 PM
yeah.
 
equivalently, what you like.
 
@BalarkaSen and, for the last time, I am. you'll see. ;)
ciao, I've got work to do.
 
@BalarkaSen got the point if..
t=-x_0/(x_1-x_0)
Then it goes through 0,0
Hello@TobiasKildetoft
 
that doesn't make sense. your t must be inside [0, 1]
@SohamChowdhury yeah, now that you're with SB, I guess you will.
 
@Rememberme Hi
 
12:43 PM
@TobiasKildetoft I don't understand resolutions well, but I'll believe you.
 
Okay .....
 
for the second time, you're mixing up quantifiers.
 
@BalarkaSen But then, I mostly do cohomology in some sort of algebraic context
 
you have to find an $(x_0, x_1)$, not a $t$.
yeah, @Tobias.
 
@BalarkaSen But then, for example the proof that De Rham and Cech cohomology coincide (whe they both apply) is pretty much just algebra (via spectral sequences)
 
12:49 PM
ah?
interesting.
 
Hmm
 
@Tobias did I tell you about the recent problem I have been thinking about? (I am not sure if I should : I have been bragging about my small discoveries ever since I started working on it, haha)
 
@BalarkaSen No
 
wanna hear?
 
12:55 PM
ok, so we know that galois theory and covering spaces are of strikingly similar nature. that is, $\pi_1(X, x_0)$, defined as homotopy classes of loops based at $x_0$, can also be thought of as deck transformation group of the universal cover $p : (\widetilde{X}, \tilde{x_0}) \to (X, x_0)$. this is very similar to the definition of $\mathsf{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$, where $\bar k$ is the algebraic closure of $k$. there has been lots of theories unifying these, afaik.
now, if the two theories are similar, there should be an analogy for the homotopy-classes-of-loops definition of $\pi_1X$ in Galois theory too. so the punchline of the problem is : can we "see" loops and homotopies in $\mathsf{Gal}(\bar k/k)$?
I have found a few analogies, but I am still working on this as of now. It seems to be a fun problem.
 
Hmm
 
@BalarkaSen Interesting
 
yeah, but I don't have enough machinery to "prove" anything yet. just searching for the correct analogs.
 
let n = 1,2,.....

It is obvious that the binomial coefficient of $\binom{n}{k}$ is $\frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}$.

what is the binomial coefficient of $\binom{-n}{k}$
 
1:12 PM
@barznjy: an alternative way of writing your definition of the binomial coeffficients is as $$\binom{n}{k}=\frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}=\frac{n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)}{k(k-1)\cdots 1},$$ and that second version of it works for any number $n$ (positive integer or not)
 
@Semiclassical Matlab cannot compute factorial(negative integer)
 
the numerator i wrote is not the factorial of a negative integer
 
@Semiclassical do you think it is possible to write a Matlab code for this ?
 
certainly. you can probably do it from scratch without much trouble by creating an array of the factors and taking their product. alternatively, there's probably a matlab implementation of the pochhammer symbol (which is what the numerator amounts to)
though, it looks like matlab already can handle binomial coefficients with negative arguments: NChooseK
actually, nvm. that's for the symbolic toolkit
 
2:09 PM
and then, of course, replace factorials with $\Gamma$ to generalize to arbitrary complex $n,k$?
 
Hi @all
small request, could you check whether my notation is readable in this answer mathoverflow.net/a/210787/14414
 
@Balarka, do these topologies have any particular names?
 
@SohamChowdhury As mentioned in the paragraph, they give the same topology
 
oh, sorry. I meant "metrics", not "topologies".
 
I have one general question, the mathematics courses on coursera are generally too applied and they dont really teach pure math at all. Why is that? for example, they dont teach differential geometry, topology, etc.,
 
2:21 PM
@RajeshD because most people don't care about non-applied things?
and the ones who do come and waste time in this kind of chatroom :P
 
@DanielFischer Is it still too hot to think?
 
@SohamChowdhury $d(x, y) = |x - y|$ is just the archimedian metric.
 
the others.
 
the max metric, I think, is called $\ell_\infty$ metric
 
I think I saw Alex talking about those once.
 
2:24 PM
okay....well, but the puremath is not really non applied , its just not apparent that they can be applied, thats the interesting thing about them
 
what are you doing right now?
 
@SohamChowdhury
 
@SohamChowdhury trying to get some schoolwork done, took a break since I am talking to prof about something.
 
well, but few people study pure mathematics with the sole intention of applying it.
@BalarkaSen who's your prof?
 
you know the guy.
 
2:25 PM
Mj?
 
yes.
 
ooh, cool.
 
I never said 'sole'
 
@RandomVariable No. But I'm busy for a few more minutes.
 
@RajeshD yes, I understand.
 
2:26 PM
@SohamChowdhury that's true for a lot of science in general, come to think of it
 
but not many people understand that the joy of pure math is just that -- "OMG this is so beautiful".
leastways, I'd think so.
anyway, I don't think my philosophising is productive at all, so I'll zip it.
 
@Soham did you think about the short exact sequence problem much?
 
@BalarkaSen will, tomorrow in the bus.
 
@soham it's not quite what you're getting at, but you might find this essay an interesting read
 
i recall you already made a few guesses, but you didn't give me the maps.
 
2:28 PM
Any ideas how to proceed from here on? : mathoverflow.net/a/210787/14414
 
I've read that already, @Semi.
 
@BalarkaSen don't recall. $V_4$ and all?
I remember I did guess, but not what the guesses were.
 
oh?
i told you not to google.
 
@DanielFischer OK. I'll wait. I had a question about something I asked you last year.
 
2:29 PM
@BalarkaSen eh, I didn't.
never did.
 
oh, I misread as "I remember I did guess, but not my guesses"
 
oh haha
 
ok, then recall and write down the maps in $\Bbb Z_2 \to G \to \Bbb Z_2$
 
@RandomVariable Okay, I'm no longer busy for the moment.
 
2:30 PM
just remind me. what is the SES condition, @Balarka?
 
fact that might interest you : your guesses were right, and those are all of them.
 
@BalarkaSen you told me that, I think. $V_4$ and $C_4$?
 
@SohamChowdhury $A \to^f B \to^g C$ is a short exact sequence if $\ker g = \im f$, where $f$ is injective and $g$ is surjective
 
oh, did I tell you I now have awesome intuition for quotienting? (compared to before)
 
equivalently, $B/A \cong C$
ok, @Soham?
 
2:32 PM
right.
then definitely Klein and cyclic of order 4.
I'll find maps.
 
what's your intuition?
 
timidly Lagrange's theorem?
 
no, I mean what's your intuition for quotienting?
 
huh?
I just "feel" quotients better now compared to before.
 
oh. well, i think of intuition for something as a model which you can use to simplify the thing you want to understand
 
2:35 PM
(i.e. I get why you guys talk about "quotienting stuff out")
@BalarkaSen ah, that's later.
 
ok, cool
artin gives a lot of intuition for quotients, iirc
 
first grab the eel and pull it out of the water, then you can bang it on the head, then skin it, then . . . left as an exercise to the reader
@BalarkaSen I read Artin on the bus.
oddly, Aluffi did it better. dunno why.
 
@SohamChowdhury grothendieck-soham method for proving something?
2
 
when I understood the correspondence thm, everything clicked.
@BalarkaSen haha
$\hskip-0.5in \huge{\uparrow}$the rising fisherman
 
@SohamChowdhury yep, lattices are cool.
 
2:37 PM
@DanielFischer Does the argument here necessarily break down if $\sum a_{n}$ does not converge absolutely? It might no longer be the case that we have uniform convergence on the entire unit circle.
 
haha, @Soham, that one's even better
 
now with an arrow! B|
 
i am not starring it anymore.
:P
 
because these kids mess with the $\LaTeX$?
 
because the chat'd get messed up
 
2:39 PM
ah, I see.
Hatcher is very good at conveying intuition imo.
 
yes.
yes indeed.
ok, I am gonna leave. make sure you figure out the maps.
 
sure.
ciao.
 
@RandomVariable I don't think it necessarily breaks down. But with only conditional convergence, if the result still holds, it will be hairier to prove.
 
Hi @DanielFischer How's it going
 
@LucioD Fair enough. The temperature is back to life-supporting levels.
 
2:45 PM
@DanielFischer Where are you from?
 
Europe.
 
@DanielFischer Oh yeah, I heard there are a number of heat waves.
 
We typically have one per year. And that's more or less all the summer we get, the rest of the year is un-hot and rainy.
@RandomVariable If the limit function is continuous, I think we can modify the argument to use the Fejér kernel instead of the Dirichlet kernel. Then we have a uniformly convergent sequence of trigonometric polynomials, and everything should work. For sufficiently ugly $\sum a_n \sin (nx)$, I can imagine the result becoming false.
 
I prefer un-hotness and rain myself.
 
@r9m @Hippalectryon
 
2:59 PM
@DanielFischer I thought you were American?
 
@Hippalectryon $$\int_0^{\pi/2} \text{Li}_3(\phi \tan (x)) \, dx$$
 
@LucioD Eight degrees and drizzle become pretty boring (and uncomfortable) after a while.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist $\phi$ ?
 
@Hippalectryon golden ratio
 
3:01 PM
Oh ok
 
@LucioD Where did that idea arise from? I always spell neighbourhood, behaviour, colour, centre etc.
 
r9m
@DanielFischer can you help here .. the OP is asking if we can use Lindeloff Theorem here .. but I'm not sure why we'd need that here :|
 
Upvote
0
Q: Calculating $\int_0^{\pi/2} \text{Li}_3(\phi \tan (x)) \, dx$

Chris's sis the artistDifferentiation under the integral sign is one thought. What else would you try? $$\int_0^{\pi/2} \text{Li}_3(\phi \tan (x)) \, dx$$ where $\phi$ is golden ratio.

 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist kore wa nan desu ka?
 
@r9m lol, what is that? :-)
 
r9m
3:04 PM
@Chris'ssistheartist okay! (+1)
 
@DanielFischer Might have confused you with Ted.
 
@r9m Hmm. I'd think proving that the function doesn't grow too fast on $\mathbb{R}$ isn't easier than proving it's bounded.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist what could it be? (japanese :P)
 
@r9m hehe, no chance for me to recognize it. :-)
 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist could have just googled it :-) I pick up random japanese phrases as I watch jap anime :)
@DanielFischer I see ..
 
3:06 PM
@r9m OK :-)
 
@DanielFischer I wanted to adapt your argument to show that $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^{3}x}{x}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n} e^{inx} \, dx = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^{3} x}{x} e^{inx} \, dx $$ where $a_{n}$ are the coefficients of the Maclaurin series for $\exp \left(\frac{z-1}{z+1} \right)$ (which I think converges conditionally at $z=1$). Things work out nicely if I assume that the switch is valid.
 
@Balarka: for $G=\Bbb Z_4$, I think $f:[x]_2\mapsto[2x]_4$ and $g:[x]_4\mapsto[x]_2$ should work.
it's great fun playing with SESes.
 
@Hippalectryon
 
Polygamma 3 O_o that's unexpected where does it come from ? @Chris'ssistheartist
 
@Hippalectryon Can't tell, sorry. Wait for my book. :-))))
 
3:12 PM
:P ok
 
@RandomVariable If things work out nicely, that's usually an indication that the switch is valid. A justification may still be difficult. Gut feeling is that it's okay, but I don't trust gut feelings before I have a proof.
 
Hi ! Any idea ?
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1315109/distributing-groups-of-objects-into-boxes
 
This might be stupid, but: Is there a function that hasn't limits everywhere? I mean, some non trivial function. I guess that the void function would play that role.
 
@Hippalectryon It's a long time since I managed to created bridges bewteen the polylogarithm area and polygamma area.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist here's Balarka creating bridges between Galois theory and covering spaces, and you building these. everyone's building bridges :P
 
3:21 PM
@SohamChowdhury :D
 
r9m
Too many Bob The Builders around here ... :P
 
@r9m I just scrolled down and saw a deleted answer mentioning Lindelöf's theorem there. The OP of the question may have gotten the idea from that answer.
(And if you stop slacking and get your 10k rep, you can see deleted answers yourself.)
 
r9m
@DanielFischer slacking?! :P You sound like my professors :P ..
 
Hello!! Is someone of you familiar with multipoint evaluation?
In my book there is the following part about Multipoint Evaluation:


The forward transform of evaluation-interpolation is multipoint polynomial evaluation over a field $F$. We shall focus our attention on the following

Problem $P_N$ of "size" $N$: Evaluate a polynomial $a(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{N-1}a_ix^i$ of "length" $N$ (length=degree+1) at each of a set $E_N=\{a_k\}_{k=0}^{N-1}$ of $N$ distinct points $a_k \in F$ (the "evaluation points").

The solution of $P_N$ is the collection of polynomial values $A_k=a(a_k)$ ($k=0, \dots , N-1$).
@DanielFischer do you have an idea?
 
3:29 PM
Never heard of multipoint evaluation.
 
Ok... No problem... @DanielFischer
 
@Balarka, the same maps work for $G=V_4$, if you relabel as follows: $(0,1,2,3)\mapsto(1,a,b,c)$.
I've checked the maps by hand. I want my prize.
:P
(also, this was a valuable exercise; thanks)
 
@DanielFischer Not sure if you remember our discussion regarding upper semi-continuity. I found another definition: $f$ is upper semi-continuous at $x_{0}$ iff for every sequence $x_{n} \rightarrow x$ it follows that $\limsup\limits_{n \to \infty}f(x_{n}) \leq f(x_{0})$. I am using the definition of upper semicontinuity from wiki.
Which is $f$ is upper semi-continuous at $x_{0}$ iff $\limsup\limits_{x \to x_{0}}f(x) \leq f(x_{0})$. Can you see how it can easily be shown that these are equivalent?
 
@LucioD They aren't. Only for nice enough spaces. Then it's the same proof as that $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ if and only if for every sequence $x_n \to x_0$ you have $f(x_n) \to f(x_0)$.
 
just to clarify, @Balarka:
for $\Bbb Z/4\Bbb Z$, the maps are $f:(0,1)\mapsto(0,2)$, $g:(0,1,2,3)\mapsto(0,1,0,1)$.
for $V_4$, the maps are $f:(0,1)\mapsto(1,b)$, $g:(1,a,b,c)\mapsto(0,1,0,1)$.
(the homs map corresponding elements of each seq.)
and since there are no other iso classes of order-4 groups, done.
 
3:33 PM
@DanielFischer First countable spaces?
 
@LucioD Yes. More generally, sequential spaces.
But ordinary people don't need to care about sequential spaces that aren't first countable.
 
@DanielFischer What do you care about?
 
Food. Tea. Cats.
 
@DanielFischer Is it obvious whether or not the Maclaurin series for $\exp \left(\frac{z-1}{z+1} \right)$ converges on the unit circle (excluding $z=-1$)? I wasn't able to figure out the general term. I came to the conclusion that it probably does using the first 20 terms of the series.
 
@DanielFischer Tea? Are you British?
 
3:38 PM
@RandomVariable No idea. But twenty terms is not much to base a hunch on when infinity is involved.
@LucioD Unfortunately, no.
 
So you would like to be?
 
@DanielFischer It is the implication that does always hold that I am interested in proving. If $\limsup\limits_{x \to x_{0}}f(x) \leq f(x_{0})$ then $\limsup\limits_{n \to \infty}f(x_{n}) \leq f(x)$ whenever $x_{n} \rightarrow x$. Can this easily be shown?
 
@LucioD Depends on what you call "easily", but basically yes.
 
@DanielFischer Can you give me a hint of how to do this
 
Given $\varepsilon > 0$, there is a neighbourhood $U_\varepsilon$ such that $f(x) \leqslant f(x_0) + \varepsilon$ for all $x\in U_\varepsilon$.
Since $x_n \to x_0$, there is an $n_\varepsilon$ with $x_n \in U_\varepsilon$ for $n \geqslant n_\varepsilon$.
Hence $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty} f(x_n) \leqslant f(x_0) + \varepsilon$.
 
3:52 PM
@SohamChowdhury yes, that is correct.
@SohamChowdhury i don't understand those notations. what are $0, 1, 2, 3$ and $1, a, b, c$?
oh, I see, integers mod 2 and those letters are elts of $V_4$.
 
@DanielFischer I know. I was hoping there was some theorem about convergence on the boundary that I didn't know about.
 
I haven't checked if your second maps are correct, @Soham. the thing with $V_4$ is apparent once you identify it with $\Bbb Z/2\times \Bbb Z/2$ (indeed, these are isomorphic). $\Bbb Z/2 \to \Bbb Z/2 \times \Bbb Z/2 \to \Bbb Z/2$ is defined by letting the first map to be inclusion into the first factor, and the second map to be projection onto second coordinate.
 
@DanielFischer Oh okay, so you are not using the definition of $\limsup\limits_{x \to x_{0}}f(x)$ directly, but instead using the implication that $f$ is semiconinuious at $x_{0}$ iff $\limsup\limits_{x \to x_{0}}f(x) \leq f(x_{0})$?
 
@RandomVariable Boundary behaviour can be bad. Is there any known semi-explicit formula for the coefficients?
 
@Soham ps : no point to use the fact that there are no groups of order 4 to conclude these are all, because I am going to use that these are the only exact sequence to conclude the there are no groups of order 4 :)
remind me later, I'll tell you about the homological algebra lemma/
 
4:00 PM
@LucioD Yes. You can of course leave that out to see $\limsup\limits_{n\to \infty} f(x_n) \leqslant \limsup\limits_{x\to x_0} f(x)$ whenever $x_n \to x_0$. [Where you either allow or disallow $x = x_0$ resp. $x_n = x_0$ for both sides of the inequality.]
 
@DanielFischer I don't know of any formulas.
 
@RandomVariable In that case, urgh. No idea how it would behave on the boundary.
 
@DanielFischer I was trying to prove directly from definition of $limsup\limits_{x \to x_{0}}f(x)$ but the definition is quite irritating (at least the one from wiki), so I was having some difficulty. I am talking about the definition $\limsup\limits_{x \to x_{0}}f(x) = \lim\limits_{\epsilon \to 0}(\{f(x): x \in B(x_{0},\epsilon)\setminus\{x_{0}\}\})$.
 
@anon you're around?
if not, here goes : $i_1 : L \hookrightarrow \bar{k}$ and $i_2 : L \hookrightarrow \bar{k}$ be two embeddings. then is it true that there is a $g$ in $\mathsf{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$ such that $i_1 = g \circ i_2$?
I guess there is.
 
@LucioD Note that by monotonicity, we can write that as $\inf\limits_{\varepsilon > 0}\dotsc$. Since the tail of every sequence $x_n \to x_0$ which doesn't attain the value $x_0$ lies in $B(x_0,\varepsilon) \setminus\{x_0\}$, we have $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty} f(x_n) \leqslant \sup \{f(x) : x \in B(x_0,\varepsilon)\setminus \{x_0\}\}$. That for every $\varepsilon > 0$.
 
4:13 PM
oh, and by embeddings, I mean embeddings that fix $k$ lying below. otherwise there'll be wild things for which that doesn't hold, I guess
 
4:26 PM
@DanielFischer This all relates to a very general integral formula that I derived yesterday that I can justify in some cases but not in others. I wanted to use the formula to answer a question on M.SE. Unfortunately, that question involves one of the cases I can't completely justify. Should I post an answer with a caveat, or should I not post anything?
 
@RandomVariable I'd say post with a caveat, quite possible that somebody can justify it completely.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist why did you delete the question?
 
Pride?
Or perhaps saving it for the book :-)
 
@DanielFischer That does make sense except I don't understand the reasoning as to why monotonicity allow you to rewrite the $\lim\limits_{\epsilon \to 0}...$ as $\lim\limits_{\epsilon > 0}...$?
 
r9m
@skillpatrol I saw there were 2 comments when I came back ... but it was already deleted by that time, so I didn't get to see what those comments were ..
 
4:39 PM
@LucioD $s(\varepsilon) := \sup \{ f(x) : x \in B(x_0,\varepsilon) \setminus \{x_0\}\}$ is a monotonically increasing function of $\varepsilon$ (on $(0,+\infty)$). For a monotonically increasing function $m \colon (0,+\infty) \to [-\infty,+\infty]$ you have $\lim\limits_{\varepsilon \to 0} m(\varepsilon) = \inf\limits_{\varepsilon > 0} m (\varepsilon)$.
 
@r9m ok
 
@DanielFischer I see, thanks.
 
r9m
@DanielFischer This is my idea of gaining reputation while completely slacking off :P I guess it was cheap but couldn't help it ... :P
 
@r9m I calculated it and it wasn't as I expected to be, referring to the answer. The question might have put too much pressure on people.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist I see!!!! I thought some one might have posted a duplicate link or sth like that .. so I got worried ..
 
4:49 PM
@DanielFischer You following Wimbledon at all?
 
@r9m No, I just deleted it.
 
@LucioD No, it's following me. I'm farther to the east. As long as Federer or Murray win it, everything's fine.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist I see! okay :-) If it's very difficult I don't wanna try it .. is it doable by my level of knowledge?
 
Oh you following Wimbledon nice....@DanielFischer
Where has @AlexClark been .... I haven't met him since days :(
 
@DanielFischer Both of them are playing well. Hoping Federer does well, don't see him having a great chance of winning slams after this season. The younger players are becoming much more competitive.
 
4:55 PM
Huge shocker .....
Nadal was defeated @LucioD
 
@r9m I couldn't answer for you, you know better. :-) Well, some problems are based upon research, and I doubt one can easily do them from a first try, but I might be wrong, of course.
 
@Rememberme Yeah it was. His game still a bit off after his injury. But I think he can still win some slams. But not sure if he has the longevity like Federer.
 
hi all
As we do from time to time, the Community Math Blog [this one] is looking for posts and authors interested in writing posts! If you have something that you think would interest the community (like a tutorial, exposition, an interesting set of problems, bits of news, et.) and you're interested in writing something about it well, then I bet the blog is looking for you
5
 
r9m
@Chris'ssistheartist :-) I wanted to know if the tools you used were highly specialized :)
 
@r9m I can only tell you they are very clever. :-)
 
4:59 PM
@r9m you can write up your blog on mse blog...
 

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