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5:17 AM
Man, when I start talking, everyone stops talking........ :(
Lol
 
I need some help with calculating surds
i don't understand how to do division when one has a whole number before it and the other does not =/
 
What do you mean?
Like 1 / (1/2) or something?
 
example:
2√14 divided by √21
the whole number before √14 is throwing me off on how i work it out
 
Oh so (2√14)/√21 = 2(√14/√21) = 2√(14/21) = 2√(2*7/3*7) = 2√(2/3) right?
 
erm
i think so
 
5:31 AM
Do any of you guys have a munkres text on them and could help me?
 
can't 2√(2/3) be simlfied further?
 
Remember I can write (2√14)/√21 as (2√14)/√21 = 2 * √14 * (1/√21) right? I mean it's just a*b/c :)
@JulianRachman I can try help with Munkres but only try quick :)
 
OK. I wanted to verify that in #3 of ch2 in the problems, that the topology \tau={X-U...} where U is the set of open subsets of X is NOT a topology.
 
Munkres solutions are online dude :)
 
Because if we exclude U in \tau, it is not a topology due to that fact that you just excluded the open subsets which is basically want a topology is (the collection of open sets.
I couldn't find them
If you can't help then I will ask someone else if you would prefer.
 
5:37 AM
@JulianRachman, we didn't have topology today, and our topology had a sub professor last time it met so we were off on a tangent.
 
math.stackexchange.com/questions/1164459/volume-and-estimate this looks like a home work question to me. are they allowed?
 
Lol. I can say my hard tutors are @Kaj @Mike @Ted @anon and more......
@Kaj OK cool. I saw that you guys won't have school or something?
And could u verify my answer?
 
I did solve a cool topology problem for HW last night: Let $X$ be an ordered set with the order topology, and $Y$ be a subset of $X$ under the subspace topology. Find an example of such an $X$ and $Y$ where the subspace topology on $Y$ cannot be realized as the order topology on $Y$ for any ordering.
What answer @JulianRachman ?
 
Ah! That is quite interesting...
I was discussing it above.
 
limit as t goes to zero (sin2t/sin3t) =?
 
5:41 AM
I am still debating if I should learn frlm Clark's nots
 
I know I should multiply by ((1/2t)/(1/3)t)), but what should I do to "balance" it?
 
@JulianRachman I'm not sure I understand the question. $X \setminus U$ will be the empty set since every point is a member of an open set.
 
@Kaj wait. Never mind. I think I am wrong. I have to prove a topology and Such.
 
Or do you mean to take the open sets in this "new" topology as the compliments of the open sets in the old?
@JulianRachman
 
How do got know?
How did you get that?*
 
5:44 AM
Well, state your question again just so I can make sure we are on the same page.
 
Heyo
 
Hey there
 
can anyone here humor a conversation about the sentence "this sentence is false"?
having a minor breakdown lol
Is it just the case that languages have some statements that can't be assigned a truth value?
 
@Kaj it is long. Can you go to my Web page and if you go to references you will find a copy of the book.
 
Because I feel like every statement should have a truth value...
 
5:45 AM
It is a long question and refers to an example
@Kaj
 
@Anthony, see here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
 
And I am rethinking my answer
....
 
wowe
That's a long page name
thanks
Oh no
It's Godel
 
Go to page 83
 
I don't really know what I'm talking about at all in this regard.
I know 0 logic.
 
5:47 AM
me too yay
thanks
 
Is it the 2nd edition @JulianRachman?
 
Idk. I think so.
I just searched for some text for me to learn from
 
Ok, I'm on page 83
What problem?
 
Are you looking at the topology in Example 4?
 
5:53 AM
Ya.
Again, I know already my answer on wrong. Just wanted to illiterate that again.
 
Do you know how Munkres defines "Countable"?
Are countable sets necessarily infinite, or simply sets in which a surjection exists $\mathbb{N} \rightarrow S$ ?
Rudin, e.g., uses the latter definition of countable.
 
No. I don't. I went right to the topology. I'll look over it now
 
The difference is that some authors use "countable" to mean infinite with cardinality equal to $\mathbb{N}$ whereas other authors use "countable" to mean those sets together with finite sets.
 
is 3√20 equal to (3√2) x (3√10), or 3(√2 x √10)
 
OK. So munkres says that to me infinitely countable, it has to be in a bijective correspondence f:a\to \mathbb Z^+
 
6:04 AM
Ok excellent
 
@Dave, latter
 
So how should I approach this @Kaj
 
ok thought so ! thank you
 
np
@Dave: hw would you write the former with roots, do you think?
 
@JulianRachman, I'm not convinced this is true. $X$ should be an open set, and it is not under this definition.
$X - X = \emptyset$ ?
 
6:08 AM
@JoeStavitsky 3(1.4x3.1)
 
@Dave:?
 
@Kaj are you going off the context of the problem and book or my answer?
 
At any rate, it is clear that this will be closed under finite intersections. @JulianRachman

Context of the problem
 
you asked for the roots though the numbers aren't exact
 
Since any finite intersection of subsets will be a subset of each of the components.
Now you need to verify that, if $\{U_i\}$ are an infinite collection of such subsets, then $\displaystyle X \setminus \bigcup_i U_i$ is countable.
 
6:11 AM
ok thats what I thought you were doing, its wrong. Try again, and use the actual root symbols for clarity. Remember, the only way something comes our of a square root twice is if its under the root four times
or, if you have two separaye roots, one time under each root
two times under each root, sorry
 
@Kaj Wait. Isn't it just a finite complement top then?
 
@Dave umm...
 
It's like an infinite complement though @JulianRachman. $U$ is open if $X \setminus U$ is countably infinite?
 
@robjohn, dont worry, he'll get there
 
@JoeStavitsky are you helping him?
 
6:14 AM
Trying :)
 
@JoeStavitsky Okay; I'll leave you to it :-)
 
what did you mean by root symbols?
isn't √ the correct symbol ?
 
the way you did it before. Dont use the approximations, theyre confusing
yes, that symbol is correct
 
OHH @JulianRachman. Things make sense now. "Countable" in this context means either finite or countably infinite.
 
@Kaj of we make X-U "all of X" then U would be empty
 
6:16 AM
See page 45.
 
Oh!!!!!
 
The problems should be easier for you now.
Just go down the list and verify the topology axioms
 
See. I have a different perspective on by defn of countable
Ya.
Button again., wouldn't it still just be a finite complement top?
 
It's different, because the finite complement thing said $X \setminus U$ should be finite.
Whereas here we are allowing $X \setminus U$ to possibly be countably infinite as well.
 
Oh. Allright
So \tau_c={U:X-U is either countable or is all of X} @Kaj
 
6:24 AM
Yeah
 
So show \bigcup (X-U) and \bigcap^n_{k=1} (X-U) are closed?
@Kaj
 
That might be the hard way since the complement of an open set might also be open. E.g. the even integers in the set of all integers.
I'd do it directly.
 
Like?
Sorry. I am slow
 
For the union stipulation, show that if $\{U_i\}$ are open, then $\displaystyle \bigcup_i U_i$ is open by showing that $X \setminus \bigcup_i U_i$ is countable.
 
Oh. OK
 
6:32 AM
I've closed the book already, but I think Example 3 gives you some tools to use.
The finite intersection stipulation is easy, fortunately. If $\{U_i\}$ is a finite collection of opens, then it's somewhat obvious that $X \setminus \bigcap_i U_i$ is open.
I.e. $\displaystyle \bigcap_i U_i \subset U_k$ for any $k$.
 
OK that is great. Wow I thought of this problem too hard
And is is terrible that I am only on #3 after like 4 days!
 
No worries. Just keep pushing on.
 
Yep. And after looking through the Munkres text a little, world you suggest that I learn from Clark's notes too?
 
Maybe? I'm not learned enough in topology to speak on pedagogy
 
Oh. And by assuming a {U_i} to be countabley infinite of opens.
, We can say that the complement X-U is also infinitely countable of opens. Thus Proving our first point
 
6:45 AM
Hey guys :)
 
@Kaj ^
@Clarinetist hey!
 
Sure. The infinite union thing isn't entirely trivial, so you'll want to construct a rigorous argument.
 
I'm usually not up this late :P Midnight snack
 
What time is it?
 
almost 2 AM here
 
6:47 AM
@Kaj man, why so rigorous so early. :(
But I like it! :)
 
>90% of my undergraduate work has been completed between 12 AM and 6 AM.
 
Sadly I won't be able to even go onto the next chapter until I do all the problems and I think that I have mastered the chap. And I have one rigorous proof and 5 other problems!
@Kaj
 
Good luck!
 
Yep. Thanks! You are one of the topology guys I can count on! :-)
 
:P I don't know much topology. We're just learning the same stuff at the same time.
 
6:58 AM
:-)
Yep. When is your next exam?
 
I actually have no clue
It hasn't been announced, and it's not on the syllabus.
 
7:13 AM
Oh. Then good luck when ever it Springs up
 
Thanks!
 
I don't want to think about exams yet : S
 
7:32 AM
 
@BalarkaSen, do you know any bijections $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \setminus \{0\}$?
 
@JulianRachman So finite complement topology was cofinite topology? :P
@KajHansen Who cares. There are no homeomorphisms.
:P
 
haha
 
Actually, there is.
$x \mapsto x + 1$ for $x \in \Bbb R^+$ and $x \mapsto x$ otherwise.
 
@Balarka what? I never said that.
 
7:38 AM
No @BalarkaSen. 1/2 would not be hit, e.g.
 
@JulianRachman they're the same. you never told me the definition of finite complement topology.
the standard terminology is cofinite topology. :)
 
Oh, are you referring to homeomorphisms?
 
@KajHansen no, no.
wait, it's not a bijection?
 
It is essentially what @Kaj and I were talking about.
 
How could what you gave be a bijection @BalarkaSen?
 
7:40 AM
$1/2$ is sent to $3/2$, isn't it?
 
But what is sent to 1/2?
 
Oh ok, nothing is sent to 1/2.
Gah.
 
@Kaj how would we go about Proving the infinite union of X-\bigcup U?
 
A slapping is in order
 
Right, I don't think there is any such bijection.
 
7:41 AM
@JulianRachman, consider the facts at the bottom of page 1 here: math.uga.edu/~pete/4200HW_zero.pdf
 
Isn't the union of any open set open?
 
You want to show that.
 
Anyhow, that there is no continuous bijection is obvious @Kaj
 
mhmm
What about $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ ?
Or $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$. Doesn't matter.
 
Again, no homeomorphisms.
 
7:44 AM
Alrighty. I'm not emotionally invested in those questions so w/e
 
Harder : There is no homeomorphisms $\Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^m$.
 
@Kaj it essentially becomes the collection of open sets which is denoted by {U_i}. Isn't that already known?
 
You need (surprisingly) homology to do that.
 
You want to show that that set is closed under union operations @JulianRachman
It isn't clear that it is at this point. Particularly not in the case of infinite unions.
 
I think I will just Clark's notes to review my set theory and equivalence relations.
So we want to prove X-U closed or open?
 
7:46 AM
You want to prove that $\displaystyle X \setminus \bigcup_i U_i$ is countable for any union of $U_i$'s.
 
But that is theorem in munkres text. The thing we are trying to prove is to see that it is open.
Right?
 
Is it that same problem?
Basically whenever you are given a topology (a collection of sets which we call open), one of the things you want to check is that the topology is indeed closed under infinite unions.
It's not a theorem, but rather a stipulation that needs to be checked if we wish to determine if something is indeed a topology.
 
For general bijections, I don't think R->R* is possible at all. R->R^2 should be though.
 
OK. Yes it is the same problem. I am assuming the collection {U_i} to be countabley infinite of opens. thus making X-U as well. Then I want to prove that the arbitrary unions and finite intersections of X-U are closed ?
@Kaj
 
Well, since $|\mathbb{R}| = |\mathbb{R}^\times|$, then bijections do exist. They probably just aren't well-behaved.
 
7:53 AM
Yea, there is. I just thought of one. So.. just ignore me!
 
Think about it for a bit @JulianRachman. I have some work to finish for tomorrow
 
OK, sorry. Your work is definitely more important than mine
 
haha, you're fine
 
I thought topology being closed under arbitrary union is part of its definition.
 
Indeed @BoniTea. But if you want to prove that something is a topology, then you'll have to show that.
 
8:08 AM
Oh. I must have missed some of the chat then. My bad.
 
8:40 AM
@AbdulBasit Are you a researcher ?
 
8:58 AM
@Emrakul Hey, when is puzzlingSE exiting beta ?
 
user61230
Heyo! No idea.
 
I am a graduate student.
 
user61230
If I had to guess, I'd say a while. But I'm not an SE employee, so my guess doesn't mean much :]
 
@Emrakul do you know puzzleup.com/2014 ? They have really interesting stuff
 
user61230
Vaguely heard of it, yeah
 
9:59 AM
@JulianRachman I have send u an email......check it
 
10:14 AM
hi
my keyboard just turned the qwerty way...
 
Hi@Ramanewbie
 
hi @sayan
 
@robjohn I'll wrote you the key privately.
@robjohn Check the deleted comment.
 
@Chris'ssis but yourslef are Romanian...
@Chris'ssis That's why you erased the second part of your message ?
@Chris'ssis but I'm not spying you uh ! Don't think that.
 
@Ramanewbie I was just trying to explain why I don't post all things here that I'd like to post. That's all.
 
10:24 AM
ok I get it @Chris'ssis
 
10:46 AM
I need to finish 2 proofs (for my book) now. BBL
 
11:10 AM
I'm working on my homework and being asked to prove "If $A\subseteq B\subseteq C$ and $A$ and $C$ are countably infinite, then B is countably infinite." Right now I'm just trying to understand the problem. Would $B$ also be countably infinite if we only had $B\subseteq C$ and $B\neq\varnothing$ ?
I think I have a fair enough grasp on the direction of the proof, but I wasn't planning on making particular use of $A$, so I was left uncertain of its significance
 
11:23 AM
Hey guys
Can someone explain this proof for all numbers in power of 0 equal 1?
1 = a^n / a^n = a^n-n = a^0 ?
 
11:34 AM
@GBeau If we neglect $A$ it could be that $B$ is merely finite.
$A$ being countably infinite forces $B$ to be infinite, and $C$ keeps it from being "too big" (uncountable)
 
@DavidWheeler Oh, I feel silly. I knew I was missing something.
Thanks for clarifying
 
In general, if $|A| = |C|$ and $A \subseteq B \subseteq C$, then $|B| = |A| = |C|$ (I believe this holds for all cardinals)
 
$=|\mathbb{N}|$ would recover countably infinite as well, right?
or rather, ensure it
 
Apersonmovesinthex−yplanemovingalongpointswithintegerco-ordinatesxandyonly.Whens‌​heisatpoint(x,y),shetakesastepbasedonthefollowingrules:(a)ifx+yisevenshemovestoei‌​ther(x+1,y)or(x+1,y+1);(b)ifx+yisoddshemovestoeither(x,y+1)or(x+1,y+1).Howmanydis‌​tinctpathscanshetaketogofrom(0,0)to(8,8)giventhatshetookexactlythreestepstotherig‌​ht((x,y)to(x+1,y))?
A question
 
12:01 PM
@GBeau yes, it's the canonical example
I have a job interview tomorrow, and I'm so nervous
 
12:14 PM
@DavidWheeler What job?
 
A truss design/sales job in North Dakota
 
OK. I have not worked since mid 2007.
 
My flight leaves in 5 hours. I haven't had a "real job" in some time (I worked for a bit in a convenience store-gah! it was awful)
 
I am targeting complete recovery by end 2016. It is possible, I believe.
 
Good luck, Jasper! Everyone should have a chance for happiness in their lives.
 
12:21 PM
@Chris'ssis okay... I just got back from everything that I had to do yesterday. It was a busy day.
 
12:31 PM
@robjohn OK
 
@Chris'ssis I feel better today, but I don't know what tomorrow will be.
 
@ABeautifulMind That's great! Why do you think you feel better today?
 
@Chris'ssis Because yesterday I listened to Bocelli's song Because We Believe about 20 times.
 
@ABeautifulMind You should note all the details that improve your mood. :-)
(and use them again and again)
 
12:46 PM
Last night, I dreamt that Justin Bieber was giving me a massage.
 
Uh...was that a good thing?
 
I have had many gay dreams in the past. I don't know why.
 
If $f$ is a diffeomorphism, then $T_p f$ is bijective, right?
 
Well, dreams can often mean something-but figuring out "what" can be dicey.
For example, your dream might mean you're tense, or don't get touched enough.
 
@ABeautifulMind Related to the starred comment, I think that pain the video is referring to comes from very hard work and many sacrifices one has to do.
 
12:59 PM
@Chris'ssis OK. I was not referring to the video, just a joke.
 
Hard work isn't necessarily "better work".
 
@ABeautifulMind ;)
 
@DavidWheeler Yes, indeed.
 
@DavidWheeler Without hard work you cannot reach a high peak in anything. Is there an exception?
Besides that hard work and better work do not necessarily contradict each other. The amount of stuff simply cannot allows you not to work very hard.
 
Do I need to justify the statement "$A$ countably infinite and $A\subseteq B\implies$ $B$ is infinite." further in a proof?
That is, is this nontrivial somehow?
 
1:02 PM
"Hard work" is usually reliable...but sometimes insight comes without a lot of "trying" to achieve it.
 
@DavidWheeler But sometimes, insight comes after hard work has been put in and stopped.
 
@GBeau I wouldn't think so, how can a finite set contain an infinite one?
I'm not against the work ethic, per se. But effort alone is not an accurate measure of quality.
 
Without hard work, but wait, I think things are possibly not clearly understood, it's about extremely hard work, and without it I don't think I would have ever imagined to write books, articles, proposed problems.
 
One man cuts a lawn with a scythe, and wears himself out. Another man uses a lawn-mower, and finishes in 5 minutes. Who has accomplished more?
 
This is the drama of many students, or even professors, they think you can do the stuff of Ramanujan (or similar stuff) without working extremely hard, without spending a lot of time in the reserach area.
No, you can't!
I wanna see one that contradicts me ... (I'm preparing then some integrals by Ramanujan (or similar stuff) ...)
 
1:09 PM
Some things are difficult to understand. But difficulty, does not, in and of itself, impart value. It can, but it can also be a waste of time.
You mention Ramanujan (a good example!), and my question to you becomes-did his results come to him only with great difficulty?
 
@DavidWheeler It is difficult for me to understand why my mental problems have lasted for so long.
 
I think behind the work of all great mathematicians like Ramanujan there is extremely hard work. His wife, as in a documentary, said Ramanujan was calculating series all day long. She didn't say 1 hour, 2 or 10, but all day long.
I work on stuff even when I go jogging, go shopping, but less when I'm tutoring or have some accounting stuff to do.
But even then I arrange in mind some things about integrals, series and limits.
 
Hard work can be beneficial-certainly more productive than never trying at all. And some hard endeavors are worth more than less hard ones.
But moments of insight, or simple contemplation, or just innate talent can also yield important results, and should not be discounted just because they weren't hard to achieve.
I gather you like to integrate, it fascinates and delights you.
 
I doubt that simple innate talent is enough for getting results like the ones of, say, Euler. I think the very hard work cannot be avoided. It's a must in my opinion.
 
Surely sometimes you bang your head against the wall, all the hard calculation yields nothing. Other times, the right idea just comes to you and what seemed hard is easy.
 
1:19 PM
Sure.
 
Usually one needs the hard work in order to reach the point where that 'eureka' moment is possible, though
 
Yeah.
 
Doing hard things breeds self-discipline. Self-discipline is something you can fall back on when inspiration fails you, it's a good quality to have. It's not necessarily the only good quality worth having
 
Maybe not head-bashing hard work, but the labor of knowing the subject in sufficient depth (especially in seeing which problems are worth solving at all)
 
As I said before, hard work is "reliable"....usually doing hard work yields something of value. Some problems (hard ones, even) refuse to yield to brute force attacks.
Some problems require creativity, and I daresay creativity does not always entail "hard work".
If you have both, well...it's good to be you :)
 
1:23 PM
Eh, it hardly seems an either-or
 
In mathematics I think you need a lot of creativity. I personally consider myself pretty creative, one of my top traits.
 
Just because that labour may not seem 'creative' doesnt mean it isn't there
 
Exactly.
 
No, it's not. Not everything can be solved with creativity alone, either. But sometimes, good ideas aren't difficult.
I'm not trying to denigrate hard work, per se, as I said earlier-merely that difficulty alone is not an entirely accurate metric.
 
Huy
@ABeautifulMind: I'm glad Justin has never visited my dreams yet.
 
1:26 PM
It's more of a loose correlation, than cause-and-effect.
 
I agree in one sense: certain kinds of calculations can be tedious and involved without being enlightening
 
So, for example, you might say that people who work hard at their craft, are statistically more likely to succeed.
 
Say, doing a huge eigenvalue problem by hand
 
@DavidWheeler I wonder if the good ideas always come in place without having experience in a certain field, I mean experience gained by a lot of hard work.
 
@Chris'ssis That's hard to say-we don't really have a good idea of where ideas come from.
 
1:29 PM
@DavidWheeler In my case things happened after a lot of very hard work.
 
Whereas identifying some principle for solving it---say, some insightful decomposition---can make it very simple
 
Certainly being exposed to more ideas gives you more analogies you could possibly draw.
 
I think there certainly can be problems which just require some easy insight. But for that very reason they don't tend to live as long
 
"tend" being a key word, I think
 
Right. Not a hard and fast thing, but still the exception
 
1:35 PM
@DavidWheeler Do you have a PhD in math?
Wow, that killed the conversation.
 
Nah, I'm too lazy (actually, it's a long story, but I haven't the time to tell it here)
 
I know you have mental problems too.
 
Huy
Am I the only one here who doesn't?
3
 
@Huy lol :-)
 
@Huy I think most people in this chat don't.
 
1:53 PM
@MikeMiller I think I finally understood cellular boundary maps!
Let $d_2 : \Bbb Z \to \Bbb Z^{2g}$ in the cellular chain complex of $\Sigma_g$. By the boundary formula, $d_2(e^2) = \sigma_{i} d_{2i} e^1_i$.
$d_{2i}$ is the degree of the map $S^1 \to S^1$ given by attaching the boundary of $e^2$ with the $2g$-boquet, and punching everything except the $e_i^1$ petal to a point.
But since the attaching is followed according to the word $\prod [a_k, b_k]$, deleting everything else except $a_i$ leaves the word $a_i a_i^{-1}$, and attaching according to this word just gives something homotopic to the constant map.
Hence, $d_{2i}$ is always $0$, which in turn implies $d_2 = 0$.
 
BBL, I need to finish some more proofs.
 
@Semiclassical Hi!
 
Hi @BalarkaSen
@DavidWheeler: here's the link I had in mind
I mostly have in mind point 10 of that
 
2:09 PM
Hah. That's actually a famous page :P
 
Heh, I know it because Terence Tao has it linked on his blog page
 
Could someone help me better understand special limits please? For instance, limit as x goes to zero (sin(2x)/sin(3x)). Clearly I need to multiply by ((1/2x)/(1/3x)) but then what?
 
If you can rewrite your expression as a quotient of terms which have finite limits, then you can write the limit of the quotient as the quotient of those limits
(With the usual proviso that the denominator not go to zero)
 
@Semiclassical, right, and it is known that sinx/x goes to 1 as x goes to zero.
But, I need to do something to "balance" the multiplication by ((1/2x)/(1/3x)) right?
 
Right. And that's still true if we replace $x\to kx$
Yes, but you can do that by inspection
 
2:19 PM
@Semiclassical:?
brb in 3 min
 
You can introduce the $1/x$ by multiplying both terms by that factor
And then you can insert the factors of 2 and 3 by hand, at the cost of an overall constant out in front (but that's easy)
 
@Semiclassical, sorry, I'm lost. Multiplying by 1/x gives (sin(2x)/x)/(sin3x/x), and multiplying by 2/3 gives 2(sin(2x)/x)/3(sin3x/x), right?
O m g I am dumb today
no wait that still doesnt work
 
Given a field $F$ with $q$ elements such that $q \equiv 1 \pmod n$, the equation $x^n = \alpha$ for $\alpha \in F^*$ is claimed to have $0$ or $n$ solutions. Moreover it is claimed that if $\alpha = 1$, there are no solutions. I am unable to make sense of this, surely $x = 1$ is a solution?
(I.e., if $q = 4$ and $n = 3$, then $x^3 = 1 \pmod 4$ has the solution $x = 1$
 
2:47 PM
@AndrewThompson: I'm not seeing why that would not be a solution either; can you cite a source for that statement?
 
@AndrewThompson Typo or misreading. For $\alpha = 1$, there are $n$ solutions.
 

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