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10:00 PM
@MikeMiller!
 
Oh no, is @Mike here?
 
what'd I say about empty pings, @BalarkaSen?
 
It's not empty
 
I'm not working with a circle, the question is given the unit square with it's usual product topology, and using the equivalence relation that the interior points are equivalent to themselves, and (1,t)~(-1,t) and (t,1)~(t,-1) and (1,1)~(-1,-1), find an embedding into $\mathbb{R^3}$.
 
it contained a '!'
 
10:01 PM
fair
 
@MikeMiller How're the preparation for quals going?
 
ugh
 
@MikeMiller hola.
 
@Mike has decided to reply to everything in a single word.
 
But that space, once you perform the identifications, is homeomorphic to a torus, @Anthony. That's what they wanted you to understand.
 
10:02 PM
I wanna conjecture something very nice ...
 
Not quite, @TedShifrin, the last identification modifies it a teeny bit
 
doesn't speak further to @Mike
 
Well I understand that, but he wants a 1-1 continuous function.
 
@Chris'ssis yeah... I didn't say it would be easy ;-)
 
Should be $S^1 \times S^1 \times I$ with two points identified
 
10:03 PM
Oh, good point, @Mike. I didn't read.
 
@robjohn $$\frac{J_0(2)}{1^2}+\frac{J_0(4)}{2^2}+ \frac{J_0(6)}{3^2} +\frac{J_0(8)}{4^2}+ \frac{J_0(10)}{5^2}+ \cdots= \zeta(2)-\frac{3}{2}$$
 
No, that's not right, @Mike.
 
lol
unit square, not unit cube
how silly
so it's just the torus with two points identified
 
hey i was going to post that
 
No, those points were already identified.
 
10:04 PM
lol
whoops again
 
That last equivalence is redundant, @Anthony.
 
@Chris'ssis That doesn't match the value in the answer to your question... I should check the value
 
@TedShifrin yes. i don't usually eat sweets but my sister gave me one.
 
glad to be of no help :)
 
I hope your teeth don't all rot, @Alizter :P
I enjoy it when you're of no help to me, @Mike.
It's better than catching me in errors. :D
 
10:05 PM
@robjohn It's just a conjecture ... that's why I won't post it on main ... ;)
 
@TedShifrin I thought that, but it's in the problem. I still have no idea how to find a function.
 
guys I'll switch off the laptop it's too distracting for me to work :P
I'll be back later :)
c ya'll
 
You need the parametrization of the torus as a surface of revolution, @Anthony. If you don't know one, see my notes.
bubye @Sab
 
later
 
I need dinner and then to pack for a trip ...
Glad to know you're still alive, @Mike.
 
10:07 PM
Bye Professor
 
bubye, @skull.
 
Byes.
 
bubye @Balarka
It must be past your bedtime, again.
 
@Chris'ssis Mathematica computes it to be 0.14493406684822639603 which is not near $\dfrac{\pi^2-4}{6}$
 
@TedShifrin I did... You just mean spinning a circle around?
 
10:07 PM
@TedShifrin And, I have school tomorrow.
 
Yes!
 
well, today.
 
Indeed @Balarka.
 
see ya
 
But I don't have a circle....
 
10:08 PM
@TedShifrin I brushed very well afterwards :)
 
@Alizter go to sleep.
 
@BalarkaSen uha
 
@robjohn Could you correct my answer above? It's $-3/2$
 
throws a table at @Alizter
 
I'm off for the night too. \o!
 
10:09 PM
@Chris'ssis Now it looks better
 
When you identify the endpoints of $[-1,1]$ to one another, you have a circle, @Anthony.
Night @Studentmath!!
 
@robjohn :D
 
i think i'd be leaving too
 
@Chris'ssis I figured that before you posted it :-)
 
bye world, bu-bye cruel world.
 
10:10 PM
everybody is leaving :(
 
snif
 
@IceBoy have you showered recently?
 
@robjohn that must be it
the ether
 
I thought you were off, @Ted?
 
I am.
 
10:12 PM
@TedShifrin I mean, I have a whole bunch of circles...
Oh you're going... Alright.
Thanks.
 
@Chris'ssis Olivier just used the series I was about to try
It works and gives your value
 
@robjohn Yeah, nice answer. This is the way to go.
 
@Anthony Can you prove that mixed partials are equal for me?
 
You mean Clairaut?
 
Yeah.
 
10:13 PM
Why do you ask?
I don't think I can.
 
@Chris'ssis I don't have enough experience with Bessel function identities
 
@robjohn Neither do I. That one is a good beginning. :-)
 
@MikeMiller ?
 
@Anthony I can't, and I wanted you to do it for me!
 
Oh.
I have a short proof of it I've been meaning to read over.
 
10:19 PM
Give it here, buddy.
 
bleh
 
Is it bad?
 
It's not to my taste.
 
It reminds me of this
 
10:29 PM
@MikeMiller I see.
 
just kidding :-)
 
@MikeMiller I still have no idea how to do this torus problem.
 
@Anthony Get a square and glue opposite edges. It's a torus.
 
I know.
How do I define a function.
That maps from that quotient space into $\mathbb{R^3}$?
 
With cosines and sines, I'd bet :)
 
10:33 PM
Ted was saying a surface of revolution, and he said I have a circle?
But I have more than a circle... don't I?
 
Consider how to embed a circle into the plane. Now be a bit crafty and embed the torus into the plane.
err. into $\Bbb R^3$.
good luck embedding it into the plane lol
 
@robjohn Hippalectryon's problem is good to be kept in mind. It's an exceptionally nice problem, but it's over my level. It looks incredibly hard without that initial assumption.
 
@Chris'ssis over your level? You've been doing some pretty hard sums recently. I bet you could have gotten it after some work.
 
Embedding the circle into the plane effectively just means parameterizing a circle, right?
 
yes
 
10:38 PM
of what significance is the equivalence between the end points of the line?
 
huh
 
Is that just saying not to count one point twice?
 
take an interval and glue together the endpoints
you get a circle
if you don't glue them together you don't get a circle
 
@robjohn It's also true I didn't catch a good time on it, and I didn't work on it too much, but I expected more to get an idea (that didn't come).
 
@MikeMiller I know in the stupid way that you need to glue the ends
But like
if I parameterize the unit interval, why do I need the equivalence between the end points to call it a circle?
 
10:40 PM
@Chris'ssis happens all the time to most people
 
@Anthony I have to admit I don't understand what you're trying to say
what do you mean by parameterize the unit interval
 
Probably nothing correct. If we're embedding the circle into the plane, you just glue together end points of a line. How do you do that, with a function?
 
@Anthony I think I've been too fast and loose with terminology about 'gluing'. What you just said doesn't make sense to me.
 
Oh dear. When you say embed the circle into the plane.
You mean glue together points of a line segment right?
 
No, I literally mean a map $S^1 \rightarrow \Bbb R^2$ whose image is homeomorphic to $S^1$.
 
10:43 PM
I see.
 
$S^1$ can also be described as $[0,1]$ with the endpoints identified... but you still need a map
e.g., $t \mapsto (\cos(2\pi t), \sin(2\pi t))$
 
And the reason the endpoints need to be identified (besides the obvious physical reason) is so you don't get two points going to the same point?
 
I don't understand what you mean. The reason the endpoints need to be identified is because the unit interval is not the circle.
The circle is homeomorphic to $I /\{0 \sim 1\}$.
We need the endpoints identified so that we're actually describing a map from the circle...
 
I think what I'm asking is why is the circle homemorphic to I/{0∼1}.
 
Because there's a homeomorphism between them? :)
 
10:47 PM
I mean I know it makes sense, but where would I go wrong if I tried defining homemorphism between the circle and $I$?
 
I defined a map up above; verify that it's continuous with continuous inverse
@Anthony Try it and let's see
 
Well the map you gave, it's just not bijective, eh?
Yeah, wait, is it pretty difficult in general to prove that two things are not homeomorphic?
 
In general, yes. In this case, there are nice tricks.
So you're right; the map I gave you is not an injection. But what about, say, the map restricted to $[0,1)$? Why is that not a homeomorpism? It's a continuous bijection.
 
I assume its inverse isn't continuous :P
 
Sure. Convince me it's not.
 
10:51 PM
But you're hard to convince!
Lemme think.
I mean it's just arccos/arcsin, right?
 
Not on this one! All you need to show me is an open set that maps to a not-open set...
(i.e., an open set whose inverse - under the inverse mapping - isn't open)
 
Uh.
 
How about $[0,1/2)$?
 
I'm thinking. My brain isn't working.
that's the arc from [1,0 -1,0), eh?
Oh crap that's not open.
I see.
 
Aye.
 
11:00 PM
Alright, I'mma do this torus problem.
 
Anyway, $[0,1)$ and $S^1$ aren't homeomorphic because the first is not compact, while the second is.
 
Then the rest of my homework.
Well, sure.
Topology is too strong
 
$[0,1]$ and $S^1$ aren't homeomorphic because if they were, say by a homeomorphism $f: S^1 \rightarrow [0,1]$, consider $x_0 = f^{-1}(1/2)$. Then $f$ would restrict to a homeomorphism of $S^1 \setminus \{x_0\} \rightarrow [0,1/2) \cup (1/2,1]$. But the first is connected, and the second isn't!
 
How do I define the open sets on $S^1$ besides the fact that it's homeomorphic to [0,1] (0~1)?
 
@Anthony $S^1$ is normally defined as the subset of $\Bbb R^2$ of points of norm 1, given the subspace topology
Then the image of $[0,1/2)$ is not open in the subspace topology, because any neighborhood of $f(0)$ must contain points on the bottom half of the circle as well as the top
 
11:05 PM
What does the subspace topology mean again?
Actually I guess I can google that.
It's open sets are the open sets of the bigger space, excluding elements not in the set.
 
@Anthony The open sets of $Y \subset X$ are those of the form $Y \cap U$, where $U$ is open in $X$
This is the weakest topology possible to make the inclusion map $Y \hookrightarrow X$ continuous, @Anthony
 
I see.
Thanks @MikeMiller.
 
11:30 PM
@DanielFischer
 
@PedroTamaroff Prove that mixed partials are equal. Fast.
 
Use Fubini.
Take a rectangle, integrate over that, done.
 
Keep going.
 
That's it.
 
Integrate what, bro? Come on.
 
11:31 PM
What are your hypotheses?
 
$C^2$
hi mr @Pedro, @Mike
 
What Ted said.
 
This is an exercise in my book, so I think I know how to do it :D
 
@MikeMiller Well, suppose that at some point $D_{i,j}f(a)\neq D_{j,i}f(a)$.
 
Keep on.
 
11:33 PM
There is then a rectangle where the functions don't coincide.
 
nods
 
Sure.
 
Integrating and using Fubini gives equality, but this contradicts the inequality.
 
Integrating what, now?
 
$D_{i,j}f(x)-D_{j,i}f(x)$
WLOG we're in $\Bbb R^2$, $i=1,j=2$.
 
11:34 PM
Sure bro.
 
So we're good?
@TedShifrin Help.
 
I'm still waiting for you to say hello :D
 
Hello!
 
And why does that integrate to zero, @PedroTamaroff?
 
Just do it, @Mike.
 
11:35 PM
:(
 
Use Fubini + FTC
 
Surely I'm allowed to be a lazy son of a bitch sometimes.
 
nope
Help, what @Pedro?
 
Say $R=[a,b]\times [c,d]$. Then $$\int_a^b \int_c^d D_{2,1}f(x,y)dydx=\int_a^b D_1f(x,d)-D_1f(x,c) dx= f(b,d)-f(b,c)-f(a,d)+f(a,c)$$ @MikeMiller
The same for the toher.
Suppose $f: \overline{B(0,r) }\to\Bbb C$ is continuous, and holomorphic in the interior.
 
or don't you mean $D_{1,2}$?
 
11:37 PM
$D_{2,1}=D_2D_1$
 
oh, it does?
 
Thanks for letting me be a lazy piece of shit, @PedroTamaroff
 
That's how I write them.
 
That's one reason I hate that notation :P
I write $f_{xy}$ to mean $(f_x)_y$.
 
I want to show that Cauchy's integral formula still holds for $f$ in $B(0,r)$, @TedShifrin.
 
11:38 PM
Sure, @Pedro, what's your prob?
 
I am not sure where to start. On the other hand, I could prove Liouville's theorem.
 
Huh?
 
Using Cauchy's formula, I proved Liouville's theorem.
I mean, on the bright side...
 
So is the issue to prove that $\displaystyle\int_{|z|=r} \frac{f(z)}{z-w}\,dz = 2\pi i f(w)$ rather than for $|z|=r-\delta$?
 
Right, so should I take a limit of some sorts?
 
11:41 PM
Seems right to me.
 
Let me see how I can justify it.
 
@Pedro: I haven't seen @Kaj around here in ages ... although he did show up in my office yesterday.
 
@TedShifrin I gave him a problem some time ago.
 
Good :)
The justification you're thinking about shows up in complex analysis a fair amount, btw.
 
@TedShifrin Curve length, I guess? Something of that sorts?
 
11:48 PM
hmmm ... whaddya mean?
 
I don't know.
Let me finish.
 
LOL ... I'll go do some packing ...
 

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