@Kaj: Well, lots of faculty don't get their grades done until literally the last minute, anyhow, so under the old system you still wouldn't have known until the night of December 22. Some of us entered them earlier and then were, typically, bombarded by emails — mostly of a whining or begging nature, but occasionally of a grateful or happy nature :P
Oooh, Balarka is inventing an onto homomorphism from $0$ to $\Bbb Z$. Yummy.
@Mike: We ran a year-long seminar going through Lawson's CBMS lectures (the first thing on Ciprian's bibliography), and we also went through some of Donaldson/Kronheimer's book. It's still on my shelf :P
@TedShifrin well I am really asking if I just put them in two lines, would people read that as two conditions that have to hold or that one of the two have to hold?
Any advice on this? "Naoki and I are playing a game with an unfair coin that is rigged to come up heads with probability $\frac35$ and tails with probability $\frac25$. Naoki goes first, we take turns, and the first player to flip a tail wins. What is Naoki's probability of winning?"
@MikeMiller That's because algebraic topology is far from the stuff I am comfortable with.
I can't handwave out 80% of the stuff in there.
It's such a pain, checking all the details, going through all the calculations.
Partially it's also the reason I am trying to develop my understanding on the connection of galois theory with covering spaces, so that I can handwave more :P
Of course. The point of math is to understand what's going on, and the point of intuitive understanding is to be able to write down an actual proof starting from these ideas (and get a more fundamental understanding)
Note that your question was "can anyone persuade", not "can anyone try to persuade". The answer to the latter is likely yes. The answer to the former seems, based on all evidence available to me, to be no.
Note, by the way, that for a regular cover $\text{Aut}(X,Y) \cong \pi_1(Y)/p_*\pi_1(X)$, from which the existence of your sequence should immediately follow.
let $(q_n)$ be a sequence with $q_n \to \infty$. how does it follow from $$ \| u \|_{p+q_n} \leq \|u\|_{\infty}^{q_n/(p+q)} \cdot \|u\|_p^{p/(p+q_n)}$$ that $\limsup_{p\to \infty} \|u\|_p \leq \|u\|_{\infty}$ ???
@iwriteonbananas Your inequality gives you $$\limsup_{n\to\infty} \lVert u\rVert_{p+q_n} \leqslant \lim_{n\to\infty} \lVert u\rVert_\infty^{q_n/(p+q_n)}\cdot \lVert u\rVert_p^{p/(p+q_n)} = \lVert u\rVert_\infty.$$ Now you use e.g. Hölder's inequality to go from $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty} \lVert u\rVert_{p+q_n}$ to $\limsup\limits_{p\to\infty} \lVert u\rVert_p$.
@DanielFischer actually i'm not sure how we go from $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty} \lVert u\rVert_{p+q_n}$ to $\limsup\limits_{p\to\infty} \lVert u\rVert_p$ using Holders inequality. can u elaborate on that pls?
Ignatz repeatedly rolls a fair 6-sided die. What is the probability that he rolls his first 5 before he rolls his second (not necessarily distinct) even number? The probability that he rolls a 5 is 1/6, the probability that he rolls an even number is 1/2. What do I do next?