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4:10 PM
Hi @JasperLoy Are you well-defined today? :)
 
@user91500 Hi, after visiting your profile just now, I remember I talked to you before!
 
Hi @JasperLoy#
I discovered something about fractals and cyclic groups today.
I am happy.
 
@Alizter Why does it have the # behind, lol.
@Alizter Have you heard from Sarah recently?
 
4:27 PM
@JasperLoy I know a girl called sarah :)
 
@Alizter Me too, she is from Math SE, lol.
 
No. Not that sarah.
 
hello @Alizter
 
hi @Alizter @Japser, @Chris'ssis ... Happy American Thanksgiving ;P
oh, and you too, @Balarka
 
Happy Thanksgiving
 
4:31 PM
@TedShifrin you didn't hello me :(
 
@TedShifrin Hi! I don't have much to be thankful for.
 
dont get bird flu from the turkeys
 
@TedShifrin Hi
 
I understand, @Jasper ...
 
i stand corrected
 
4:32 PM
You probably are higher up if you sit corrected, @Balarka :D
 
@TedShifrin Can you recommend a dictionary for a beginner learning French or German? I am not sure which size I should get...
 
Does it matter how dedekind cuts are defined? I.e. if left or right is strict.
 
@Jasper The ones I have (among others, some in the language only) are Larousse (French) and Cassell's (German).
Left is standard, @Alizter, because somehow sup is more natural than inf, but who cares ... ?
 
@TedShifrin OK. I am thinking of getting Langenscheidt Standard French and German.
 
I don't know that at all, @Jasper.
 
4:35 PM
@Alizter I happened to have studied Dedekind cuts, lol. Why are you even studying them now?
 
@JasperLoy Because I like studying such constructions.
 
@Alizter OK. You kids really learn lots of things these days.
 
@TedShifrin Consider the p-adic solenoid $X$ defined by the inverse limit of inverse system of circles with the morphisms being multiplication by some prime $p$. I have proved that $\mathbf Z_p$ acts properly discontinuously and fixed point freely on $X$. i almost believed that there is a ses $1 \to \pi_1(X) \to \pi_1(X/\mathbf{Z}_p) \to \mathbf{Z}_p \to 1$ right when mike pointed me out that $X$ is not path connected :(
such a waste
 
@Balarka: I have never in my life thought about p-adic stuff.
 
i am thinking of patching this up by looking at the monodromy assosiated to the natural map $X \to S^1$
it should be Z_p, and there must be some generalization of some such by replacing fundamental groups by monodromies in this setting dunno
@TedShifrin well not many geometers are interested in p-adics.
 
4:38 PM
hi
anyone got any ideas about math.stackexchange.com/questions/1039829/… ?
 
Arithmetic geometers are ...
 
I thought about turning it into an integral maybe
 
@TedShifrin my objective is to have geometric interpretation for profinite groups, that's why i am looking at Z_p as an example. the actual goal is to do this for gal(\bar q/q) but that's probably too much to hope for
 
If I say a finite set $X$ has carnality $n$ do I really mean that there is a bijection between $X$ and $n$ (with the von neumann ordinal construction)?
 
That's the definition, yes. Not my preferred one, but my preferred one isn't equivalent, so...
 
4:43 PM
a finite set $X$ has carnality $n$ if it has had sex with $n$ partners
2
 
@MikeMiller!
 
@BalarkaSen hmm, interesting
 
@anon phew glad to know someone thinks that
 
@anon I hope you do not get flagged.
 
@MikeMiller What is your preferred definition and why.
 
4:44 PM
interview tiem
 
@anon With who?
 
@JasperLoy himself.
 
@anon i am free to suggestions, just to let you know
my initial idea to patch this up was to look at some embedding of $X$ in $\Bbb R^n$ (which should naturally be a manifold) and look for some action of Z_p on the embedding. but my prof pointed out that it's currently a conjecture that Z_p cannot act on manifolds by homeomorphisms
in fact, he said that it has been settled that Z_p cannot act on manifold by diffeomorphisms
 
@Alizter A set is finite if any injection to itself is a bijection. I find this more natural than "is in bijection with some certain set".
@Balarka I would be very surprised if the last result was known. If it is, it should be very recent.
 
it is recent, afaik
 
4:49 PM
Also, wait, you're trying to make $X$ into a manifold?
 
@MikeMiller no the complement.
but i have refuted the idea
 
Oh, sure. I think that's how you construct the Whitehead manifold.
 
i am now looking at the monodromy associated to the morphism $X \to S^1$ by contracting the fiber onto a point
the monodromy group should be $\mathbf Z_p$, giving some hope to think about this analogy of fundamental groups
 
@MikeMiller How do you say that $\{1, 2, 3\}$ has cardinality $3$ then. Because I am trying to understand how $|.|$ is defined.
 
What do you mean by mondromy here?
 
4:52 PM
Because if $3$ is a set then how can I find it's cardinality without being paradoxical.
 
@Alizter Oh, that's a different question. Remember - cardinality means "class of sets that are in bijection". To say that we have cardinality (something)... we must have some set in mind when writing it down.
 
@MikeMiller i dunno, it's an intuitive idea. locally the map X \to S^1 is not even a covering space (is it?) but for example if you loop around the base S^1 then the endpoint of the lift of the loop moves from one leaf to another in X
you have to realize X as the fiber product of R and S^1 to do this
 
@Balarka But it's not a fiber product of R and S^1.
 
sorry i mean R and Z_p
 
@Alizter So when we say cardinality n, we do mean that von Neumann ordinal, yes.
 
4:55 PM
@MikeMiller OK :)
And so does that make the VN construction superior over a construction like $\{S\}$?
 
The "problem" with my definition of finite... is that not every finite set needs cardinality n.
 
Zermelo's construction I think it is called?
 
I don't know what you mean by the latter construction. If they're both equivalent, it doesn't matter.
@Balarka Anyway, if you write down the standard definition of monodromy of a covering wrt a basepoint you'll see you're in trouble.
 
@MikeMiller How can a finite set not be bijective to an ordinal?
 
i know i would be @Mike. X \to S^1 is not even a covering
 
4:59 PM
I'm pretty sure it is, @Balarka. But if you say so.
 
hmm
ok, let me think about it
 
@Alizter If you use my definition, "finite if any injection is a bijection", it's not necessarily true.
 
@MikeMiller The wording is a bit unclear for me. Are you saying if all injections are bijections or if there exists a bijective injection?
 
Huh? The identity map is a bijective injection. I'm saying if all injections are bijections.
 
@MikeMiller it has also been settled for 3-manifolds : here. the referenced paper [4] settles the diffeomorphism case. the author of [20] is my professor.
 
5:07 PM
Hm, the diffeomorphism case is old. I must have a narrower view of the problem than I thought.
@Balarka So I was wrong; of course thats not a covering space, since by definition the fibers need to be discrete. But totally disconnected fibers is not an entirely different scenario. People have probably written about this before.
 
@MikeMiller Is that not problematic for sets with cardinalities larger than $1$?
wait
I still don't see a problem
 
@Alizter No, every set you would call finite, I would still call finite. But there can be more finite sets.
@Balarka Here's some food for thought with lots of references. Jeremy Brazas spends a lot of time thinking about things that are topologically fucked up, which your situation lies in.
 
@MikeMiller Explain :)
 
@MikeMiller right so it's a covering space only if we are talking about the cantor set with discrete topology, which is rather boring. can you refer me to some articles for the last statement you made?
language, man
but thanks anyway
 
@Alizter There's no reason to believe a set for which all injections are bijections has a bijection with [n] for some n. That's silly! If you have some form of choice, it's true.
You'll survive, @Balarka. You should get very comfortable with the standard case first.
 
5:14 PM
@MikeMiller I am scared to let go of C. We have choice.
Also @MikeMiller why are equivalence classes sets? or rather, why call them classes?
Or is it unfortunate naming?
 
I dunno. I dun care.
 
Ah
bi den
 
@Alizter So we have choice. We can inductive define an injection from [n] to our set X by mapping the new element to something that hasn't been mapped to yet. If this terminates, we're your kind of finite.
 
ok
 
Suppose it doesn't. Then this defines an injection $\Bbb N \to X$. Now consider the map from $X$ to itself given by fixing everything not in the image of $\Bbb N$, and sending $f(n)\mapsto f(n+1)$. This is an injection that's not a bijection.
QED. I don't think we need the full power of choice to do this, but don't quote me on that.
 
5:20 PM
@MikeMiller I understand that I need to get used to the "civil" cases first before diving onto pathological spaces and their topological properties. "you'll survive" is that supposed to be some american expression that is completely out of my understanding?
 
@alizter I feel so sick of life. I wanna scream AAAAAAAAAHHHHHHHHHHHHH.
 
@JasperLoy Go walk.
 
@Balarka I mean my language won't kill you.
You will survive having heard it.
 
i am not so sure of that. i will die of chest congestion anyway so no problem.
 
Ah, okay. That's fine.
 
5:24 PM
@MikeMiller you're fine with me dying of chest congestion?
 
Sure, as long as it's not from my language.
 
Ooo harsh
 
ah that MO post is very helpful, thanks very much @Mike
@MikeMiller another way might be to look at $X$ as a subspace of the infinite torus $\Bbb T^\infty = \bigoplus S^1$
And then taking the compliment of $X$ in $\mathbb{T}^\infty$.
Is Hilbert-Smith also true for infinite manifolds?
 
5:42 PM
@robjohn in the end $\delta $ depend only on $\varepsilon$, $|x_0|$ vanish right ?
 
I was seriously thinking of creating a society of integration ...
 
@Chris'ssis How is the progress of your book? Will it be ready for Christmas?
 
@JasperLoy No. Well, I'm a bit depressed these days, my outcome is poor ...
 
@Chris'ssis OK. I am depressed every day. I think you running every day helps.
 
@JasperLoy Yeah, I know ...
 
5:47 PM
@Balarka Things are bad in infinite dimensional manifolds.
 
ok a little googling says that people have considered infinite dimensional Hilbert-Smith
not sure if it's positive or negative though
googles further
 
It's not even known for actual manifolds...
 
@MikeMiller true, but don't you think it's natural for it to fail for infinite manifolds?
 
@BalarkaSen Your math is too advanced for most people in this chat. You should join MO instead, lol.
 
that's what i am trying to find right now
@JasperLoy i am 0 compared to some guys in here. MO is too advanced for me
for example, Mike knows a lot more than I do and he has no problem understanding any of my statements, except the vague ones ;)
 
5:50 PM
@Balarka Not entirely. I suspect you won't find an action of $\Bbb Z_p$ on an infinite dimensional manifold. If you do find something, it should be by something you might call an "infinite dimensional Lie group".
 
@BalarkaSen If you are 0, then I am -1, lol.
 
So perhaps it fails in an obvious way. But you should be able to generalize the conjecture in some sense like the above to make it reasonable, and unknown.
 
@mike Have you decided what to write for your thesis?
 
@Mike dis
 
Hi all, does anyone know how to produce the symbol # in latex?
 
5:52 PM
@JohnJack \#
 
@JohnJack Use \#
 
Kewl thanks
 
That would be 100 dollars.
 
@Balarka Ok, here's an obvious faithful action on an infinite dimensional manifold by something that's not a Lie group: $\Bbb R^\infty$ is a topological group in the obvious way, so let it act on itself by the group action.
 
@anon @MikeMiller @MartinSleziak @MaryStar @TedShifrin @DanielFischer @BalarkaSen
Hey!!!
If $(I_a)_{a \in A}$ a family of ideal of $K[x_1,x_2, \dots, x_n]$,
I have the following definition in my notes:

$$\sum_{a \in A} I_a=\{ a_{i1}+a_{i2}+ \dots+ a_{ij} | a_{ij} \in I_{a_j} \}$$

Is it right, or is there a typo here: $ a_{ij} \in I_{a_j}$ ?
 
5:55 PM
@evinda You should not ping people randomly to answer your question in chat.
 
@JasperLoy Sorry...
 
@evinda No problem, lol. I am glad you did not ask me, because I know nothing, lol.
 
but you know that you know nothing so that's a contradiction @JasperLoy
 
@BalarkaSen :D
 
I am gonna try to answer some lhf.
 
5:59 PM
@MikeMiller why should that not generalize to arbitrary lie groups?
 
Hm? I don't understand.
 
G be a lie group. it is a manifold. let it act on itself.
 
Oh, that claimed counter example doesn't work. It's not locally compact. There are a lot of problematic things here.
Yeah, what's the problem with that, @Balarka?
 
Give me ideas for a name to an integration society that attends limits, series and integrals ... Just Integration Society? I think I wanna have something more complex.
 
oh right local compactness is the condition.
 
6:02 PM
I don't want to think about the generalization so much. But I still don't get your problem with Lie groups.
 
forget about it
 
Complex Integration Society is more complex
I guess he doesn't trust them, @Mike @Balarka
 
@Studentmath Yeah, it sounds nicer ... (or? Let me think some more):-)
 
integrated society of integrators @Chris'ssis
 
I am drowning in Topology definitions :/ It's just definitions upon definitions, no actual proofs..
And then I get a question and I have no idea what to do with it
 
6:04 PM
@Studentmath draw the pictures
 
@BalarkaSen That sounds even nicer ... :D
 
@evinda they shouldn't overuse the letter $j$ as they have, you're right
 
@anon What interview was that?
 
brb
 
@Studentmath What book are you using?
 
6:06 PM
@anon So, should it be like that?

$$\sum_{a \in A} I_a=\{ a_{1}+a_{2}+ \dots+ a_{i} | a_{i} \in I_{a} \}$$

Or should it be something else?
 
@Balarka nah, for example I get the idea of 'meager' subset - I already knew about dense from Set Theory.. but I don't get the way they define it
@Jasper It's the uni's book
They wrote it
 
@Studentmath use Simmons
 
I need to learn by their defintions if I want to pass any test..
 
then digest them, don't complain.
 
I like whining
I feel good at it
 
6:09 PM
Yay! I like whining too.
 
@JasperLoy read the message right above the one where I said "interview," yeash
@evinda heh, now you're overusing $i$
 
@anon How should it be? Should I use also $j$ ?
 
figure it out
do you understand why $i$ is overused in the thing you gave?
 
J is the most beautiful letter of the alphabet.
 
it's because J for Jasper
 
6:13 PM
@anon Why is $i$ overused at $$\sum_{a \in A} I_a=\{ a_{1}+a_{2}+ \dots+ a_{i} | a_{i} \in I_{a} \}$$ ?
 
well, the first instance of $i$ is to say how many terms are in that specific sum, and the second instance of $i$ is supposed to range over the values $1,2,\cdots,i$. also your set doesn't say which $a$ is being used, or if it's supposed to be varying as well. are all the $a_i$ values from one $I_a$, or do the $a$s vary? these things are not specified in your notation.
 
@Studentmath That's what I found frustrating about graph theory :) Every week a new set of definitions I never understood why I cared about.
 
@Mike Amusing :P I always found connections with chemistry, and other ideas, games, probability, proving things in linear algebra and etc. via it - so I always found it interesting
But it was a lot of definitions, too, yeah
 
Anyway, there shouldn't be too many definitions in introductory topology, because there's not really that much worth saying about arbitrary topological spaces, despite what some people say.
If you have questions, feel free to ask. I like thinking about topplogy sometimes.
 
me too
 
6:16 PM
I don't think there really are that many definitions - it's just I've went through about 20~25 definitions, and they were used to prove about two-three nontirivial general things
 
@anon Should it be like that: $$\sum_{a \in A} I_a=\{ a_{1}+a_{2}+ \dots+ a_{i} | a_{j} \in I_{a} \}$$ ?
 
all the other exercises where just asking whether some definition holds, or doesn't hold for a specific space
 
Jeez, what defijitions are those? I can't even think of 20 definitions I care about.
Where're you learning?
 
It still feels shaky, that's all, but thanks, I will probably bother this chat with some questions as soon as I hit real exercises
@Mike Still in Metric spaces.
 
@Studentmath metric spaces are good
 
6:17 PM
I mean what source
 
My own Uni's book, they wrote it
It's from 2007, usually their books are much older (199ish) and unreadable
 
I'd like to hear the long list of definitions... I can tell you which ones don't mstter.
 
@MikeMiller I am interpreting theorems on covering spaces from munkres in terms of galois theory, which makes them as obvious as cake :P
it's the most fun part of alg topo
 
And does it make the proofs obvious, too? :)
 
nope
proofs are different beasts
but yeah sometimes if you think about galois groups and think about the proof in that context, you can use some of the ideas to use in the context of covering spaces
 
6:26 PM
@Mike well, it's long, but:
Metric, Pseudometrics, discrete spaces, $l_1^n, l_2^n, l_\infty^n$ and $l_1, l_2, l_\infty$, $C[a,b]$, isometry, embedding, bounded metric space, bounded functions, bounds, diameter, distance, open and closed balls, interior, exterior, closue, boundary, open and closed subspaces, neighbourhood, intervals, Cantor set, $F_\sigma$ and $G_\lambda$, dense, nowhere-dense (meager), separeable - and that's where I stopped
There were more minor definitions I skipped as they were mostly used for a single example
 
@Chris'ssis Hello :-)
 
out of these they proved really nothing besides other ways to define these definitions
 
@Studentmath those definitions are pretty intuitive
 
@Balarka they all are
 
so why should you have any problem remembering those?
 
6:28 PM
It's not a problem of remembering them
I feel like they are just thrown at me with no purpose
 
@Studentmath if you want to do exercise, pick up Simmons and do the exercises from head to foot.
 
I'm really complaining for no reason :P I will go find some interesting exercises instead
I think I will try to do that, yeah
 
Most of those don't matter, @Studentmath
Well, most do. But a chunk don't.
It sucks that they're all thrown at you at once. I bet most books Probablt don't do that.
 
I have a problem I'd like to put in a problem solving competition motivated by one of Balarka Sen's comments on this chat, but I'm afraid it's too hard or ill-formed, would you guys judge the question for me?
"Construct an explicit one-parameter family of homotopic curves between the top half and bottom half of the unit circle, and a continuous one-parameter family of Riemannian metrics such that at any fixed value of the parameter the homotopic curve is a geodesic for that metric."
 
oh you're still thinking about that stuff
 
6:39 PM
I said it to my friend that day and he liked it so much he wanted to put it in his problem solving competition two weeks later, he asked me earlier what it was hehe so he liked it too :)
 
cool, glad to know that
 
Do u think the question makes sense?
 
Back.
@Hippalectryon Hi. How are you doing? :-)
 
@Chris'ssis Ok I guess :-) what about you ?
 
My intuition is that we simply want to deform the unit circle into a family of ellipses using x = arcos(0) & y = brsin(0) with a = 1 & b as the parameter, then the metric and the family are functions of b, solved hehe
 
6:41 PM
@bobby looks alright, but i don't happen to be an expert in riemannian manifolds.
 
@Hippalectryon Just back from jogging.
 
it looks good when interpreted in terms of geodesic metric spaces though
so yeah, it's good.
 
@bobby Looks nice. I suspect if someone can write down the metric for the top curve they can probably do it for all of them.
 
Well I mean a geodesic in the plane is a straight line, okay - but what is a geodesic on the circle? It's a straight line along the arc of the circcle right? So if u have a polar coordinate metric a geodesic is the arc of the circle right?
 
right
 
6:43 PM
So if u give the plane polar coordinates, a geodesic is not a straight line it's an arc of a circle
wow what a cool question
 
wat
 
hehe nice
 
@anon I'm staying out of this one
 
@anon the original question (of me) was if a notion of "geodesic homotopy" can be defined, in analogy with straightline homotopy.
i.e., homotoping two maps through the geodesics on your space.
 
@Chris'ssis Got any new awesome result ?
 
6:46 PM
@BalarkaSen ah, sure
 
@Hippalectryon Not really. I mainly focus on some points that arose in the answers to my bounty question here math.stackexchange.com/questions/1021647/…
 
Ok. I see.
 
just assume $I\times\{x\}\to Y$ is a geodesic for each $x\in X$ I guess
 
doubt it's possible in general
even if you assume really nice things about $Y$
 
@MikeMiller what if we assume it's path-connected?
that should mean there is a geodesic between any two points
(I think)
 
6:53 PM
it does
 
presumably if we fix $y$ and let $y'$ range freely, "the" geodesic between $y$ and $y'$ should "vary smoothly" as $y'$ does, outside a surmountable set of exceptions. so for each $x\in X$ and $f,g:X\to Y$ we should just create "the" geodesic from $f(x)$ to $g(x)$, and then put these geodesics together, and hopefully we get a geodesic homotopy
 
Well thanks for looking into it guys, I feel nobody in the session will solve it hehe
The big words will confuse
I've never made a problem up before (and admittedly only half-made this one up) but it gets you thinking about how problems are made and how their solutions are found
This is the problem with problem-solving though, I've always thought humans have a simple answer then they cloud it in mystery so you must wipe off the human smog to find the solution, but real problems in nature do not have human smog covering them up hehe
 
And I've never solved a self-made problem before haha
 
7:11 PM
@anon If the two paths are close enough fhis should be possible but in general there's no canonical way to choose a geodesic between two points
actually it's not even true that every Riemannian manifold has a geodesic connecting two points
 
I hope one day I can make a big discovery in math...
 
just use geodesic metric spaces guys
 
$SL_2(\Bbb R)$ with a bi-invariant metric is an example
if you demand your manifold be complete you do always get a geodesic between two points but I don't see a reason to believe you can pick this canonically or always vary it smoothly.
 
@Mike An answer to a question of mine uses $$\underset{p\leq x}{\prod}\frac{p}{p-1}=\frac{1}{2}e^{\gamma}\log\left(x\right)+e^{-c\sqrt{\log\left(x\right)}}$$, is it true?
I think not since dividing by $e^\gamma \log \log x $ both sides one gets $$\frac{1}{e^{\gamma}\log\left(x\right)}\underset{p\leq x}{\prod}\frac{p}{p-1}=\frac{1}{e^{\gamma+c\sqrt{\log\left(x\right)}}\log\left(x\right)}+\frac{1}{2}$$, whose LHS goes to 1, whereas the RHS goes to $\frac{1}{2}$.
Am I mistaken?
(I hope I didn't miswrote anything, I'm using my mobile)
*miswrite
 
@VincenzoOliva 'goes to 1' when x->oo ?
 
7:21 PM
hmm, what I just said was incorrect about SL. it doesn't carry a bi-invariant metric.
but the thing I said about non-complete things is true.
 
@Hyppalectryon Yep
@Hippalectryon
 
I'm not sure anybody cares about anything I'm saying, so I'll stop.
 
@VincenzoOliva 'I think not since dividing by eγloglogx both sides one gets'
log log ? did you mean log ?
@MikeMiller I don't know who you're talking to :/
 
@Hippalectryon Urgh, sure. Typo
 
anon, mostly
 
7:24 PM
@VincenzoOliva Well if the LHS does go to $1$ (that's the only thing I can't check) then Indeed there is an error
 
@Hippalectryon To see it does you just need to know Mertens' third theorem
 
@VincenzoOliva Indeed then
 
@Hippalectryon Thanks
 
8:01 PM
@Chris'ssis Do you think one day you'll look at other fields of mathematics ?
 
@Hippalectryon Sure, I might also look at other fields of mathematics ... :-)
 
That would be great :D You could find other kinds of awesome results
 
Probabilities & applied mathematics?
Number theory is also very important too.
@Hippalectryon Before going there I wanna learn complex analysis very well and bring my contribution in this area (even if a bit).
 
I don't know much about probabilities, I have only done a little
@Chris'ssis Maybe some more broad calculus concepts ?
@Chris'ssis Vector spaces, Sheaves, ...
 
@Hippalectryon Sure, yeah! I only need good books, I can learn alone.
 
8:06 PM
:D
 
@Chris'ssis: I amended my answer too late to catch Venus. I don't know if it is any clearer.
 
Does PNT yield $$\underset{p\leq x}{\sum}\log\left(p^{n+1}\right)=\left(n+1\right)\left(c_{1}x+c_{2}\frac{x}{\log‌​\left(x\right)}+o\left(\frac{x}{\log\left(x\right)}\right)\right)$$ ?
 
@robjohn How do you pass from the first blue expression to the second blue expression? This is what Venus wanted to know.
 
@Chris'ssis Standard orthogonality of trig functions. The only ones that don't cancel are when $j=k$
 
@robjohn Yeah. This is the point Venus wanted to know I think.
@robjohn Maybe you should mention it somewhere in your answer.
 
8:14 PM
@Hippalectryon That's another statement of the answerer. Do you happen to know the implications of PNT well enough? (I don't yet)
 
@VincenzoOliva I haven't done much NT at all
 
Uhm... @robjohn May I ask your help?
 
@Chris'ssis I was doing just that.
@VincenzoOliva with?
 
@robjohn Great.
 
@robjohn Is it true thay PNT yields $$\underset{p\leq x}{\sum}\log\left(p^{n+1}\right)=\left(n+1\right)\left(c_{1}x+c_{2}\frac{x}{\log‌​\left(x\right)}+o\left(\frac{x}{\log\left(x\right)}\right)\right)$$ ?
Apologies for any typo, I'm writing on my mobile.
 
8:21 PM
@robjohn It looks like your way is the simplest way.
 
@Chris'ssis I've had a lot of experience with those kinds of sums recently. :-)
 
@robjohn Yeah, I know. :-)
@robjohn How does it seem to you this integral as difficulty? It produced some difficulties on main in some answers.
 
@VincenzoOliva I believe $c_1=0$ and $c_2=1$, but that looks right.
@Chris'ssis I guess that without the right ideas, one can employ approaches that make it pretty difficult. The best thing I think to do is to get rid of the $x$ in the original integral and deal only with the trig functions.
 
@robjohn Definitely.
 
If you get that taken care of, it is not too difficult, but I don't know how intuitive that is.
@Chris'ssis But judging from some of the answers, It would give it a high difficulty.
 
8:35 PM
@robjohn It looked like until Felix Marin posted the closed form no one believed it had a nice closed form since known people good at integration didn't work on it (or they worked some, but failed)
This is an integral from which one can learn a lot of lessons.
 
@Chris'ssis Once I had some time to work on it, it didn't take too long, but as I said, I have had just the right experience for that question.
 
@robjohn I see, thanks.
 
@robjohn Yeah, without experience it is pretty hard to attend.
 
would anyone be so kind as to translate some math for me please? I am reading the final comment of fedja at mathoverflow.net/questions/168474/… which starts
"Our matrix is degenerate iff the corresponding polynomial P(z) has a root that is also the n'th root of unity. Let q|n be the order of that root of unitOur matrix is degenerate iff the corresponding polynomial P(z) has a root that is also the n'th root of unity. Let q|n be the order of that root of unit"
what does degenerate mean?
does it just mean singular?
 
@anon Is it $\sum_{a \in A} I_a=\{ a_{1}+a_{2}+ \dots+ a_{i} | a_{j} \in I_{a} \}$
or have I understood it wrong? :/
 
9:18 PM
Does it stand that $I\cup J \subset I \Rightarrow V(I \cup J) \supseteq V(I)$, where $V$ is the set of roots and $I,J$ ideals?
 
9:58 PM
@robjohn please why $|x+x_0|\le \frac32|x_0|$ is $|x|\leq |x_0|$ ? please
 
@Vrouvrou I don't understand. That was never part of the derivation
 
@Hippalectryon ...
 
@Chris'ssis ?
 
@Hippalectryon use for that oen of series you gave me but using $2n+1$ instead od $2n$ ...
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{(z)_{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!} t^{2n+1}=\frac{\sin(z\arctan(t))}{(1+t^2)^{z/2}}$$
@Hippalectryon ^^^
 
10:03 PM
:-)
 
That would look better with some $\Gamma(n/2+1)$ :P
 
Today I go to sleep earlier ... much work to do tomorrow morning ...
 
How did the interviews go ?
 
@Hippalectryon Everything is perfect until we talk about salary (with all my interviews)
 
Ugh :/ Salary
Let me Guess
Interviewer -- What salary are you looking for ?
@Chris'ssis -- Uhm... Shall I write it as polygamma series ?
:DD
 
10:07 PM
@Hippalectryon lol, no :-)
 
/month ?
 
@Hippalectryon Yeah.
 
Wow that's pretty low
Well, I'm living in France after all
 
@Hippalectryon It's hard to ask more at the beginning, since you need to prove in the company that you're really valuable. That's fair after all.
 
@Chris'ssis About how many hours/ months ?
 
10:10 PM
@Hippalectryon 8-10 hours every day, it depends. Besides that you also need to work at home often.
 
In France, for 150 hours/month, you get minimum 1445€ (raw, you need to deduce the taxes)
 
@Hippalectryon I'm talking about hardcore jobs.
 
What do you mean 'hardcore' ?
Like, mining ? :c
 
@Hippalectryon You attend difficult stuff, like the integrals, series and limits I like. :-)
 
:-)
I don't work though
 
10:12 PM
@Hippalectryon I'm a very hard worker (no matter the situation).
 
That's a good thing
 
Anyway.
I leave.
 
:-) sleep well
 
@Hippalectryon Thanks. ;)
 
Could you tell me when the equality $V=V(I(V))$ stand?

$V$ is the set of roots, $I$ is an ideal.
 
10:33 PM
I have that $x \in V \Rightarrow x \in V_1 \cup V_2 \Rightarrow x \in V_1 \text{ or } x \in V_2$

Does this imply that $\forall f \in I(V_1):f(x)=0 \text{ or } \forall g \in I(V_2): g(x)=0$, because $V_1=V(I(V_1))$ and $V_2=V(I(V_2))$ or is there an other reason?
 

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