@DanielFischer
I have to show that $I(A\ cup B)=I(A) \cap I(B)$
$$I(A)=\{ f \in K[x_1,x_2, \dots, x_n]:f(a)=0 \forall a \in A \}$$
where $a=(a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) \in K^n$
Let $f \in I(A \cup B)$.
If $a \in A$, then $f(a)=0$
So, $f \in I(A)$
If $b \in B$, then $f(b)=0$
Then, why do we conclude that $f \in I(A) \cap I(B)$
I thought that that the above two conditions aren't satisfied simultaneously.. Am I wrong?