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2:00 AM
@BenjaLim I forgot how to do matrix multiplication!!!
 
absolutely useless
 
@PeterTamaroff Nooo!
 
@robjohn AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
@robjohn How do I multiply out what Ben wrote up there?
 
@robjohn lol.
 
@Eugene I wouldn't say that. I consider a 200 km trek to my friend's in San Diego a pretty big trip, though I have done the distance 3 times in one night.
 
2:03 AM
@robjohn trek as in? because by car I've had friends who've done 2000 miles.
 
@PeterTamaroff why do u want to multiply it out?
 
This one is in the first mid term of my algebra class starting in august:
 
@PeterTamaroff $a=d+e$, $b=-e$, and $c=d$
 
@BenjaLim To find what $(x,y,z)$ are.
 
WHAT KIND OF EXAM IS ONE WHERE YOU KNOW QUESTIONS BEFOREHAND
 
2:05 AM
@BenjaLim It is an old exam, silly!
 
@BenjaLim A test in Prescience 101?
 
OK
 
@BenjaLim Let $W=<(1,0,-1,1);(0,-1,-3,1)>$, $H_1 =\{ {\bf x} \in \Bbb R^4 : x_1+x_2-x_3-2x_4=0\}$, $H_2 =\{ {\bf x} \in \Bbb R^4 : x_1+x_2-x_3-x_4=0\}$
 
ok
 
@BenjaLim why not? there are some exams where they give you a list of 1000 questions and ask you maybe 10.
 
2:07 AM
Find a subpace $S$ of $\Bbb R^4$ such that
$(W \cap H_2) \oplus S=H_1$
And
$S \cap H_2 \neq \{0\} $
(if possible.)
 
right
 
@BenjaLim Is it tough, or long?
 
first can you identify $W \cap H_2$?
 
you mean subspace S?
 
@BenjaLim Give me a sec.
@BenjaLim Should I find a system of equations for $W$ to make things easier?
 
2:12 AM
you don't need to
well perhaps maybe yes
 
@BenjaLim So I just ask that the system is simultaneously satisfied...
 
@BenjaLim where do you live?
melbourne? sydney? canberra?
 
@Eugene Not in a day. 2000 miles takes at least 3 days switching drivers.
 
@Eugene sydney now
@PeterTamaroff if you know what $W \cap H_2$ is
stuff should be easier
 
@Eugene 2000 miles is across the entire US
 
2:15 AM
@robjohn oh yeah. not in a day. i think 3 days would be sufficient too.
 
@BenjaLim I think it got it
Any vector of $W$ would be of the form
 
@robjohn yup. my friend drove from wisconsin to Pasadena to see the rose bowl
@BenjaLim my cousins are in melbourne
 
@Eugene Wow. Hopefully, they did more than just the Rose Bowl.
 
@PeterTamaroff tell me
 
@robjohn well i think they hit vegas on the way back. but wisconsin is such a big football state that it actually does happen that people travel all the way to california JUST for the rose bowl
 
2:17 AM
@BenjaLim I'm getting it together.
 
@robjohn as in wisconsin was playing in the rose bowl for the first time in a decade
 
W can be the space such that
$2x_1-4x_2+x_3-x_4=0$
If I'm not talking crazy.
I just chose them appropriedly.
 
@Eugene It's an hour drive to the Rose Bowl; what's the big deal? ;-)
 
@robjohn not if you live in madison!
 
@PeterTamaroff that space is three dimensioal
your $W$ is two dimensional :D
 
2:22 AM
@BenjaLim $W$? But that is not a base, it is a system of generators I suppose.
The other two are three dimesional so I guess we're cool.
 
@robjohn how long should i wait before i should read a preprint of a paper that's been submitted?
 
@PeterTamaroff You described $W$ as the span of two vectors
not multiples of each other
so they are linearly independent
and so are a basis for $W$
 
@BenjaLim Oh, OK.
Fack!
 
@Eugene why would you wait?
 
@robjohn well errors? also since it's not verified it might not even be a proof
 
2:25 AM
@BenjaLim Wait!
The vectors of $W$ satisfy the equation of $H_1$
Si $W \subseteq H_1$.
 
ah yes
 
Let me see what happens with $H_2$
 
@robjohn should i wait at least until the first revision or just take a leap of faith?
 
@BenjaLim How should I take the intersection? What would you do?
 
hold on
 
2:27 AM
@robjohn it's by a very reputable author though. manjul bhargava
 
@PeterTamaroff
Suppose $(a,b,c,d) \in W \cap H_2$
Then in particular $(a,b,c,d) \in W$
so that the components must satisfy $a + b - c - d = 0$
Also $(a,b,c,d) \in W$
So that there are real numbers $e,f$ such that
$(a,b,c,d) = e(1,0,-1,1) + f(0,-1,-3,1)$
so $a = e$, $b = -f$, $c = -e - 3f$
$d = e +f $
 
@BenjaLim I'm getting that $e+f=0$
 
how?
@PeterTamaroff Can you wait for about 1 hour?
There is this stupid construction happening right outside of the window
it's so noisy
 
I assume that $v=c_1(1,0,-1,1)+c_2(0,-1,-3,1)$ so that $v=(c_1,-c_2,-c_1-3c_2,c_1+c_2)$
 
and the excavator and drilling are driving me nuts
@PeterTamaroff I'm going to go to some café or something
 
2:34 AM
@BenjaLim I'll go to sleep in about $1$ hours :P
I have a midterm tomorrow.
 
@PeterTamaroff What time in BA?
oh shit
really noisy here
 
@BenjaLim 11:35 PM
@BenjaLim Do you have earphones?
 
no unfortunately
let's continue
mid term is more important than noise
 
Since $v=(c_1,-c_2,-c_1-3c_2,c_1+c_2)$ I use the equation from $H_2$ to get $c_1-c_2+c_1+3c_2-c_1-c_2=0$
Which gives $c_1+c_2=0$
 
yes
So in fact $H_2 \cap W$ is just a line
 
2:36 AM
@BenjaLim It is in fact $v=c_1 (1,1,1,0)$
 
yes
 
@BenjaLim Right.
@BenjaLim So $S$ must be a plane?
 
@PeterTamaroff yes that's what I am guessing
because
if you call $H \cap W_2 = L$
then you want $L \oplus S = H_1$
 
I corrected the vector
 
so that $\dim L + \dim S = \dim H_1$
 
2:38 AM
@BenjaLim Right.
 
Hence $\dim S = \dim H_1 - \dim L = 3- 1 = 2$
 
@BenjaLim Wait
 
@PeterTamaroff
 
They're asking that
$S \cap H_2 \neq \{ 0 \}$
 
yes
 
2:42 AM
And that $S$ is the complement of $L$
That automatically means $S$ has dimesion two. So it must be spanned by two linearly indep vectors
 
@BenjaLim throw another shrimp on the barbie!
 
@PeterTamaroff What is true is that $(W \cap H_2) \cap S = \{0\}$
this is because your sum is direct
 
@BenjaLim Yes. You mean $\{ 0 \}$ =D
 
@PeterTamaroff too lazy
FYI in most algebra books, e.g. like AM you will just see 0
 
@BenjaLim But one thing
 
2:44 AM
@PeterTamaroff wait
 
Since $L =<(1,1,2,0)>$
 
you have a problem
 
We have taht $L \subset H_2$
 
wait
what is $L$?
wasn't it $(1,1,1,0)$?
 
@BenjaLim I had messed a sum. hehehe
 
2:45 AM
what is $L$ now?
crap all this arithmetic we're messing up
 
It is $(1,1,2,0)$
 
ok
 
So it is in $H_2$
 
ophewww
I was like
 
Since $x_1+x_2-x_3-x_4=0$
 
2:46 AM
crap it is not in $H_1$ then what does the internal direct sum make sense?
 
@BenjaLim It is also in $H_1$
 
@PeterTamaroff You just need to find two other vectors $v_1$ and $v_2$ that are in $H_1$
 
@BenjaLim Yay!
 
$v_1,v_2$ and $(1,1,2,0)$ are linearly independent
 
@BenjaLim But we want $L \oplus S =H_1$ not $H_2$
 
2:47 AM
this should be pretty easy
sorry
got the $H's$ mixed up
@PeterTamaroff Is this ok now?
 
Yeah. That is part of first mid term in Algebra (like half the semester), which hasn't even started yet, hehehehe.
 
@PeterTamaroff In fact let me prove to you rigorously now why $H_1$ has dimension 3
 
@BenjaLim I'm all eyes.
 
$H_1 $ is the orthogonal complement of the one dimensional subspace spanned by $(1,1,-1,-2)$
so since $\Bbb{R}^4 = H_1 \oplus H_1^{\perp} = H_1 \oplus (1,1,-1,-2)$
we have that $\dim \Bbb{R}^4 = \dim H_1 + 1$
so that $\dim H_1 = 3$
@PeterTamaroff satisfied?
 
@BenjaLim I don't know what the orthogonal complement is! AHHHH
 
2:50 AM
useless
 
@BenjaLim I have like $50$ excersices from the book I got. It is from a Spaniard professor, which has his books TeX pdfs (they are only available online as far as I know)
 
@PeterTamaroff crazy
 
But so far I know up to direct sum.
 
linear algebra is crazy
that is good enough
but at the moment you are only dealing with the internal direct sum
knowing the direct sum
there is such a thing as the external direct sum
 
@BenjaLim Hm, OK.
 
2:53 AM
@PeterTamaroff You should go to bed
Vamos Vamos Peter Tamaroff!!!
 
@BenjaLim Interestingly enough, the $50^{th}$ excersice if from Fibonacci.
 
for your exam tomorrow
 
He asks to get Binet's Formula from some algebraic considerations.
 
@PeterTamaroff yes
 
@BenjaLim Hahah thanks!
@BenjaLim It is calculus, though.
 
2:54 AM
The proof I know is using generating functions
 
And I have 3hs
 
@PeterTamaroff No problem
 
@BenjaLim I really like those
 
Go to bed now
you need enough sleep for an exam
 
@BenjaLim Yes, true. But it isn't that early. It is at 1 PM
Let's look at one more, and I'll go, OK?
 
2:55 AM
doesn't matter
ok
hit em up
 
I need to find a basis for $\mathcal P(\{a,b,c\})$ with $K=\Bbb Z_2$
The action is simply $1 \cdot S = 1$ and $0 \cdot S = \emptyset$
 
Using $A+B:=(A\cup B)\backslash(A\cap B)$ again.
 
@anon I suppose
 
symmetric difference
@PeterTamaroff what is the identity element in $\mathcal{P}(\{a,b,c\})$?
 
@BenjaLim $\emptyset$
 
2:58 AM
empty set
 
no the multiplicative identity
that is an order
 
multiplication in a vector space?
 
@BenjaLim Oh, $A \cap A =A$
I gues....
But I doesn't work for every set in $\mathcal P$
 
@anon Forget it I was thinking field extensions :D :D
 
Hm....
 
3:00 AM
{a} {a,b} {a,b,c} ?
 
@PeterTamaroff You can bash out and check that the above is linearly independent :D
there are only $2 \times 2 \times 2 $ possibilities
 
hello world
 
@BenjaLim Hahaha true.
Well, I'll go get some rest!
 
yes
I should go too
 
@PeterTamaroff Surely you should at least test {{a},{b},{c}}?
 
3:02 AM
need to get started on algebraic topology
 
@anon Well, that would work, right?
@BenjaLim GO, GO!
 
Figure it out :)
 
@anon I'm confident!
 
bye all !
 
later
(also, my first guess is also a legit basis)
@PeterTamaroff It's impossible for any nonzero element to be a scalar multiple of another in a $\Bbb F_2$ vector space, so you merely needed to pick two arbitrary ones and figure out the third. (And you can find $\dim V=3$ by noting $|P(\{a,b,c\})|=2^3$.)
 
3:07 AM
@anon What is an $\Bbb F_2$ vector space?
 
$\Bbb F_2$ is the field with two elements, i.e. $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$.
 
@anon the or a?
 
how many fields with two elements do you know of?
 
@anon I don't know!
Hahahha
 
I'll give you a hint: every field has distinct additive identity and multiplicative identity. Can F2 have any other elements?
 
3:08 AM
@anon I know that one is a field, because 2 is prime.
@anon What I don't understand is if you're saying $\Bbb F_2 := \Bbb Z_2$ or $\Bbb F_2$ is a notation for a field with two elements.
 
There is only one field with two elements (up to isomorphism). It happens to be $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$.
 
@anon Ok, I'll catch up on that later. I'll go sleep now.
@BenjaLim Bye!
 
@BenjaLim throw another shrimp on the barbie!
 
3:58 AM
hey folks. anyone in here?
would like some help with basic linear algebra if possible
 
k
 
$A=([0,1,1],[1,0,1],[1,1,0])$ and one of the evals $\lambda=-1$. Solve $(A-\lambda I)v=0$. Therefore, $([1,1,1],[1,1,1],[1,1,1])v=0$. Row reduce matrix to get $([1,1,1],[0,0,0],[0,0,0])v=0$. Then the answer is that $E_\lambda=span{(-1,0,1),(0,-1,1)}$. How that last step? I get the components of v: $v_1+v_2+v_3=0$. what then?
(i don't remember how to make a matrix, those are rows between the [])
 
you just need two arbitrary LI vectors that generate the subspace of v with components adding to 0, which is equivalent to finding two LI vectors perpendicular to (1,1,1). they picked two arbitrarily.
 
oh
 
(obviously (-1,0,1) and (0,-1,1) are LI vectors in the given subspace, and the subspace is dim 2 so this is a basis)
 
4:06 AM
bottom line: any two vectors such that the components of each vector equal zero and the two vectors must be LI.
 
sum of components
 
yes, the algabraic multiplicity was 2, and the text was showing that the geometric one is 2, too. thx anon
 
@Eugene you could be the first to find the errors :-)
 
@anon right. i meant sum
@anon: did they pick two vecs because the alg. mult. was 2?
 
does $E_\lambda$ stand for eigenspace, or generalized eigenspace? If the former, because of algebraic multiplicity, if the latter, geometric multiplicity. (I think I got that right.) Of course they're equal in this case.
pretty sure it's just eigenspace, so yes algebraic multiplicity
 
4:11 AM
well, $E_\lambda$ was my shorthand notation. they use notation $E_{\lambda=-1}$, where $-1$ is a eigenvector with algebraic multiplicity of $2$.
 
it's pretty easy to see the multiplicitis are the same from the rred form
 
what is the giveaway in the rred form?
 
two of the rows are zero
well, hmm
 
ok. thx
 
BTW egreg is the first 100k user at TeX.SE.
I guess Math.SE and TeX.SE have non-trivial intersection, so I thought it might be interesting information for some folks here too.
 
4:40 AM
@robjohn or the first one i know of. lol.
 
4:55 AM
@Eugene You don't need to worry about errors, you can just find them :-)
 
@robjohn cool. i'll just go ahead and read it then. thanks.
 
 
1 hour later…
6:04 AM
@Eugene Yes, my problem.
 
6:52 AM
@Eugene There's no doubt that my problem is extrememly elementary, but there seems nobody interested in such hard elementary problem.
 
leo
7:28 AM
hi there
I'm having troubles
 
aren't we all
 
leo
:-)
I suppose so...
 
@leo what sort of troubles?
 
leo
I'm trying to see $L^2[a,b]$ as the completion of the pre-Hilbert space $C[a,b]$.
I understand how goes all the construction.
In this setting $L^2[a,b]$ is a set of equivalence classes
@robjohn My problem is that I can not realize $\chi_{\Bbb Q\cap [a,b]}$ as an equivalent class
To be more specific I'll sketch the construction
 
@leo Isn't the equivalence class, functions which are constant on that set?
 
7:40 AM
Well, what is the $L^2$ (semi?) norm of that characteristic function?
@robjohn Let $f$ be a function that is $0$ everywhere on $\Bbb Q\cap [a,b]$ except a specific point (assume $a\ne b$). Then isn't $f\sim\chi$?
My understanding is that $L^2$ is made up of functions with $\|f\|_2<\infty$, modulo the space of functions $g$ such that $\|g\|_2=0$.
 
leo
1. In $C[a,b]$ (continuous functions over $[a,b]$) with the Riemann integral, define $(f,g)=\int_a^b f$
2. Let $\cal{C}$ the set of Cauchy sequences in $C[a,b]$ (on the norm induced by the inner product).
3. Define $f\sim g\iff \lim_{n\to\infty} |f_n-g_n|^2=0$
4. Define $L^2[a,b]=C[a,b]/\sim$
@anon is this construction
 
user19161
@leo So you don't understand the last step - completion of a metric space?
 
leo
And the inner product defined in $L²[a,b]$ is given by $(f,g)=\lim(f_n,g_n)$
 
Hmm. You require the functions be continuous on $[a,b]$. How is $\chi_{\Bbb Q\cap[a,b]}\in C[a,b]$ then?
 
leo
@JasperLoy I understand All the construction.
 
7:50 AM
Oh, we need a Cauchy sequence to serve as an avatar for $\chi$. Hmm.
 
leo
@anon Exactly!
 
@anon: Did you get my email?
 
let me check my email
 
user19161
@Gigili Did you meet Mahnax?
 
leo
The candidate is something like $f_n=\chi_{r_1,\ldots, r_n}$ where $\{r_i\}$ is an enumeration of the rationals of $[a,b]$
but this doesn't works.
 
user19161
7:52 AM
The latex is confusing me, haha. You guys go ahead!
 
user19161
I actually wrote 20 pages on this in my undergrad days!
 
leo
Because $\int_a^b |\chi-f_n|^2$ doesn't make sense.
 
@JasperLoy you know that you can display math in chat using robjohn's or Zhen's bookmarlet, right?
 
user19161
@MartinSleziak Yes, thanks!
 
leo
@robjohn did you see what I wrote
 
 
3 hours later…
10:43 AM
What is the derivative of $\frac{sin((n+\frac{1}{2})x)}{sin(\frac{x}{2})}$, and what is the value of the derivative at $x = 0$. In my computations the derivative is $\infty$ at $x = 0$ But I know it is $0$. I don't know where I have done the mistake.
 
hard to tell where the mistake is if you don't write your computations out. in any case, alternative methods might be Taylor expansions (you only need to go partial) and complex exponentials
 
@anon : How to compute the value of a function at a point, and also draw a proper graph (unlike the contour plots here which I do not understand) in Wolfram math
 
10:59 AM
f(x) at x=a will compute the value of a function at a point, and drawing a graph you just do y=f(x) (the word "plot" seems to be optional). however, you have a parameter $n$; unless you plug a specific value for $n$ in, it can't give you a definitive graph, so it won't really work...
 
I am getting $\infty$ for any $n$ in my calculation, just want to make sure it is wrong, I'll enter some value for $n$
 
pretty sure that's like a Dirichlet kernel or something...
yep, dirichlet kernel
 
This is what I've got : $\frac{(2n+1)sin(\frac{x}{2})cos((n+\frac{1}{2})x) - sin((n+\frac{1}{2})x)cos(\frac{1}{2}x)}{4(sin(\frac{x}{2}))^2}$
by hand computation of derivative
@anon
 
how did you get a sine of a cosine?
brb bathroom
 
sorry mistake
i've edited
 
11:09 AM
k, now how do you plug x=0 into that?
 
the denominator goes to zero as $x^2$ and the numerator goes to zero as $x$, hence I get $\infty$
 
@RajeshD What do you want to do?
 
what makes you think the numerator goes to zero as x^1?
@FrankScience he wants to see where his computational error is
 
Derivation?
 
$sin(x) = x$ for small x @anon
 
11:13 AM
differentiation of sin((n+1/2)x)/sin(x/2) at x=0
 
You can do it by Taylor series.
 
Is my differentiation itself is wrong I guess, Wolfram shows different one
 
I'm too inebriated for this sort of arithmetic.
 
Well, I'll compute it. Wait for a moment.
 
11:16 AM
@FrankScience It's 0, as w|a confirms, Raj just wants to know where his error lies.
I still think it's with the numerator.
 
@RajeshD Let $f(x)=\sin\alpha x/\sin\beta x$.
 
ok
fine
 
@RajeshD We have $f'(x)=(\alpha\cos\alpha x\cdot\sin\beta x-\beta\sin\alpha x\cdot\cos\beta x)/\sin^2\beta x$ for $x>0$.
 
yes fine
 
@anon Oh, I missed the point of null sets.
 
11:27 AM
@RajeshD $f(0)=\alpha/\beta$. I've omited.
 
How @Frank
How did you compute $f(0)$?
OHHHHH
 
@RajeshD No, it's only definition. Otherwise, $f'(0)$ never exists.
 
OMG
 
@RajeshD Because $f'(0)=\lim_{x\to0}(f(x)-f(0))/x$.
 
So the usual derivative does not work for $x = 0$, as the definition is different. Is it right @Frank
 
11:30 AM
@RajeshD To be rigorously, we should prove some theorems.
 
the now how do we get $f'(0)$
L' Hopital rule??
 
@RajeshD For example, if $f(x)$ is coutinuous on $-H\le x\le H$, and it's differentiable on $0<|x|\le H$, we have $f'(0)=\lim_{x\to 0}f'(x)$. Can you prove it?
@RajeshD You should prove it first.
 
ok let me look at it for a moment
 
@RajeshD Well, you seems not very familiar with such stuff. We can compute it without that theorem, only use the definition of derivation.
$f(x)=\sin\alpha x/\sin\beta x$ for $x\neq0$, and $f(0)=\alpha/\beta$. Let's compute $f'(0)$.
 
Has it got to do with the Darboux Theorem ? @Frank
I'll take it granted for the moment, i'll think of it later
 
11:38 AM
@RajeshD I'm not sure.
 
I'll take your theorem for granted for now
Now How can I get $f'(0)$?
 
@RajeshD Do you know $\sin x=x-x^3/3!+O(x^5)$ as $x\to0$?
@RajeshD Taylor's theorem.
 
yes i know the expansion, not sure of O notation
then
 
@RajeshD What do you know about the expansion?
 
Taylor series expansion about $x = 0$
right?
where do you plugin this expansion
 
11:42 AM
@RajeshD You've learn Taylor-series?
 
yes I know roughly long time back
let us proceed with some hand waving for now
 
@RajeshD I'll work on scratch paper first, but I don't know why you know the deeper theorems.
 
@Frank : Now $f'(0)=\lim_{x\to0}(f(x)-f(0))/x$ but how do you show that $f'(0) = 0$ now
??
"Why I know the deeper theorems?" I didn't get
 
@RajeshD Because that $\sin\alpha x=\alpha x-\alpha^3x^3/3!+O(x^5)$, so does $\sin\beta x$.
 
right which makes $f(0) = \alpha / \beta$ but how does it get us $f'(0)$?
 
11:47 AM
$f(x)-f(0)=\sin\alpha x/\sin \beta x-\alpha/\beta$.
plug that two asymptotics into the preceding equation.
 
ok let me do it
 
Notice that $\sin\alpha x=\alpha x-\alpha^3x^3/6+O(x^5)=\alpha x(1-\alpha^2x^2/6)(1+O(x^4))$.
and $(1-\beta^2x^2/6)^{-1}=(1+\beta^2x^2/6)(1+O(x^4))$.
I think these two clues are useful.
The hypothesis of these asymptotics is $x\to0$.
 
but there is an $\frac{1}{x}$ outside, then how do we get $0$ as answer?
 
Have you got that $\sin\alpha x/\sin\beta x=\alpha/\beta\cdot(1+(\beta^2-\alpha^2)x^2/6+O(x^4))$?
 
yes
 
11:58 AM
Substract $\alpha/\beta$ from the both sides, and divide by $x$.
There's no doubt that $O(x^4)/x=O(x^3)$.
 

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