Jesus Saves

@Dottard How is it, “patently excluded by the grammar”?

@NihilSineDeo I apologize for thinking you implied that preexistence makes on God. I'll try to avoid responding to more disagreements unless this is moved to the chat section and you wish to continue. Thanks for your responses. May God bless your studies of His Word.

@NihilSineDeo You admit that he “suppressed all His attributes”, but on the other you claim he was still deity. Being deity does not make one almighty God. Moses, judges, and angels are also called “god” in the Bible.

@NihilSineDeo You wrote, “And this verse assumes he preexisted his incarnation.” Preexistence in a different state does not make one God. Believers are NOT going to be almighty God when resurrected to immortality. Did Lazarus become God because he preexisted his death? The context of Philippians 2:6 was his existence “in the form of God.” Being in the form of someone (God) does not make one the form they represent.

@NihilSineDeo Since Jesus was human, he is not GOD. One cancels out the other. Jesus emptied himself --that is he did not posses any non-human attributes. Jesus is not depicted as having two natures in the Bible. One should not confuse the Messiah and the GOD he represented (Deuteronomy 18:15-18; Micah 5:4, Psalm 2:2,7, 45:7,89:26, 110:1, Isaiah 42:1-3, 53:6, 61:1, Jeremiah 30:9).

@TesfayeWolde Since Jesus was human, he is not GOD. One cancels out the other. Jesus emptied himself --that is he did not posses any non-human attributes. Jesus is not depicted as having two natures in the Bible.

@TesfayeWold Yes, we are in agreement. Sorry, addressed wrong person.

Are not angels called "god" in John 10:35?

"Theos" is used of idols in the NT. See for example Acts 7:40. Also, in Acts 12:22 a human is called "god." Sorry, your claim that the word "theos" has exclusive use in the NT (if I understand you correctly) is incorrect.

You wrote, "There are no cases in the NT Koine Greek where a human or even an angel is ever called "God". But you are okay with Jesus being called "god"? Was he not fully human?

It's not about what Mr. Wallace says, but an exegetical understanding of God's Word.

@Ruminator, you are defending the doctrine started by the church and state (Roman Catholic Church) and enforced with a sword for over 1000 years. If the Bible is one’s final authority for faith and practice, then the Vatican’s doctrine isn’t.

I agree with Ruminator. The claim by @DrPeterMcGowan that Trinitarianism is “fiercely monotheistic” is laughable. Monotheism is belief one absolute God as found in the Shema (Deuteronomy 6:4-5). All the “one God” verses in the Bible are exclusively to the Father (John 5:44, 17:3; Mark 10:18; 12:28-34; Romans 3:30; 1 Corinthians 8:4-6; Galatians 3:20, 1 Timothy 2:5, etc.). Jesus is the Son of the one God. Not the God that He is the Son of.

@eques There is no written evidence without assumptions that the post Nicene definition of the Trinity existed before it was introduced in 325 and subsequently refined. The Trinity doctrine is not the presence of three members, but that all three make up the one God. There are additional events of this doctrine.

@Ruminator I agree that It clashes with the practice of the Apostles. I hope to conduct some critical research into this verse in the future.

@DrPeterMcGowan I did find a quote from Tertullian who quoted a baptismal formula. It’s unknown if his source was the Didache or Matthew 28:19.

@DrPeterMcGowan The only authentic source I could find from your list that recite the baptismal formula was the Didache, which may have have been used for Mat 28:19. Please provide contextual quotes.