It's not about what Mr. Wallace says, but an exegetical understanding of God's Word.

"Theos" is used of idols in the NT. See for example Acts 7:40. Also, in Acts 12:22 a human is called "god." Sorry, your claim that the word "theos" has exclusive use in the NT (if I understand you correctly) is incorrect.

You wrote, "There are no cases in the NT Koine Greek where a human or even an angel is ever called "God". But you are okay with Jesus being called "god"? Was he not fully human?

@JesusSaves - there are cases of idols being called "no gods at all" and people making "a god of the stomach" but these are clearly viewed as false gods. My point is that, unlike the OT, the NT word is never applied unblasphemously to humans or angels.

@JesusSaves - Jesus was fully God and fully man and thus, despite being human, was deserving of the title of God as per my listed examples above.

@Dottard - could you please clarify what you mean by ‘fully God’? Isn’t Jesus the only begotten Son in whom the invisible, incorporeal and omnipresent God who IS Spirit was MANIFESTED according to John 14:8-12; Colossians 1:15, 19-20; 2:9; 1Tim. 3:16?

@TesfayeWolde - I agree - but I cannot see where I have used the phrase "fully God".

@TesfayeWolde Jesus being both human and God is perfectly possible as to be a human one must posses a biological machine that houses the soul (will, mind and emotion all immaterial) and a spirit(also immaterial). The fact that Jesus preexisted His incarnation 2BC (ex Jude5) and accepted to be housed in a biological machine, He being God, God being a spirit, makes it entirely possible to be fully God and fully human simultaneously. Humans receive a spirit after conception, Jesus already was even before Abraham, He didn’t begin after conception He is from olam everlasting.

@TesfayeWolde Since Jesus was human, he is not GOD. One cancels out the other. Jesus emptied himself --that is he did not posses any non-human attributes. Jesus is not depicted as having two natures in the Bible.

@ Jesus Saves: YES, Jesus is not depicted as having two natures in the Bible as taught through the creed of the Council of Chalcedon, A.D. 451. I believe in the ONLY true God of John 17:3; Rom. 3:30; 16:27; 1Cor. 8:6; Gal. 3:20; Eph. 4:6; 1Tim. 2:5; & Jam. 2:9 who IS INVISIBLE and therefore INCORPOREAL & OMNIPRESENT as written in Exo. 19:16-18; 20:18; 33:20; John 1:18; 4:24; 6:46; Col. 1:15; 2Cor. 4:4; 1Tim. 1:17; 6:15-16; & 1John 4:12. Jesus is the ONLY begotten Son who DECLARED and in whom the ONLY true God was MANIFESTED.

@TesfayeWold Yes, we are in agreement. Sorry, addressed wrong person.

@NihilSineDeo Since Jesus was human, he is not GOD. One cancels out the other. Jesus emptied himself --that is he did not posses any non-human attributes. Jesus is not depicted as having two natures in the Bible. One should not confuse the Messiah and the GOD he represented (Deuteronomy 18:15-18; Micah 5:4, Psalm 2:2,7, 45:7,89:26, 110:1, Isaiah 42:1-3, 53:6, 61:1, Jeremiah 30:9).

It does NOT say in the Greek @JesusSaves that he emptied himself it says he (meaning it was voluntary) he made himself void. He suppressed all His attributes. And this verse assumes he preexisted his incarnation. So yes he relied entirely on the HS but that was by choice. That doesn’t negate His deity. And the verses you quote don’t prove nor deny that a)being one cancels the other b) Jesus could not be God and man c) God could represent Himself as a human. Maybe you can confirm your statement that one cancels the other with Scripture. Trinity is OT and the NT merely affirms the obvious.

@NihilSineDeo You admit that he “suppressed all His attributes”, but on the other you claim he was still deity. Being deity does not make one almighty God. Moses, judges, and angels are also called “god” in the Bible.

@NihilSineDeo You wrote, “And this verse assumes he preexisted his incarnation.” Preexistence in a different state does not make one God. Believers are NOT going to be almighty God when resurrected to immortality. Did Lazarus become God because he preexisted his death? The context of Philippians 2:6 was his existence “in the form of God.” Being in the form of someone (God) does not make one the form they represent.

@JesusSaves I didn’t say preexistence makes one God. I merely stated the obvious, that Jesus existed prior to incarnation. Meaning that He was non human prior to incarnation but also existent. Your comments on humans are irrelevant because human don’t exist prior to birth which was the case with Jesus. P2:6 requires much further expounding than this comment section allows for. But agreed a form is not the represented but the representative yet there is OT context to this short statement. John17:5,24 says Jesus predates Creation, which not even angels predate creation only God predates creation

@NihilSineDeo I apologize for thinking you implied that preexistence makes on God. I'll try to avoid responding to more disagreements unless this is moved to the chat section and you wish to continue. Thanks for your responses. May God bless your studies of His Word.