Considering this expression
$\frac{2 J+1}{8 \pi^{2}} \int D_{m_{1}, m_{1}}^{(j)}(R) D_{m, m_{2}}^{(j)}(R) D_{M M^{-}}^{(j) *}(R) d R$
They say it is possible to change the argument R to RR_0 where R_0 is a constant rotation matrix, since the integral surrounds all the rotations R, and holding the same final result of that integral. How can we prove that?