for $M$ let $P \to M \to 0$, then let $M^\ast := \ker (P \to M)$, so $0 \to M^\ast \to P \to M \to 0$, so $\operatorname{Ext}^i(A,M) \cong \operatorname{Ext}^{i+1}(A,M^\ast)$
I feel like Leaky Nun would be good at computational stuff, since some of the code golf stuff uses array based programming like Matlab but arguable much better.
@user1357113 Hey! I see you changed your username, I changed mine too. Still waiting for your book. I hope you have a happy and successful new year! =)
Like, I don't really care at all about the GRE type ODE stuff at all, to me that would've been a waste of time. Like oh here's how to solve ODEs of the form blah
For ODE just what I mentioned. Existence/uniqueness 3 or 4 different proofs
Yeah, it's been a while. I got wrecked by college and didn't really have time. The major issue is that I'm pretty competitive about it. If I were to pick it up again I would want to spend at least 4hrs a day on it. I mostly just mess around on the piano now.
@Dair oh I trailed off earlier but yeah we did some Lyapunov stuff. It was kinda cool, like if you have some vector field and you can find a Lyapunov function then you can guarantee that an equilibrium point is stable. If it's a "strict" Lyapunov function you have asymptotic stability. Then there was some stuff about linearization
It was okay but not 100% exactly my thing. Maybe presented differently I'd prefer it though
But yeah stuff like oh you take this polynomial and you solve by doing this and pressing this button and blah blah, nope
@JohnNash Ah, well hopefully if John Nash can over come schizophrenia you can overcome what you're going through.
@Daminark For me math was pretty consistently interesting, but I had no idea what direction I wanted to take it for grad school. I did have a pretty good idea for CS rip. Forever a programmer.
Should have took math more seriously in high school lol.
@JohnNash Haha, maybe some time in the future, I'm going to invest time in some less theoretical stuff atm. I'm also pretty interested in computer verification which is another intersection of math and CS.
@Dair see you! And yeah I kinda wish I got into math earlier than I did. But I guess it's going okay now. As for future directions, I feel like I like algebra, number theory, and topology most at the moment? Though I still like some parts of analysis, esp functional, and harmonic seems cool
Well for mine: Yo mama so fat is a well known meme and joke, and my version of that is that she is so fat that she cannot be a set because a fat person is generally large in size
(Minimal polynomial, not characteristic polynomial)
@BalarkaSen I don't think that's true
A diagonal matrix whose diagonal entries are all nth roots of unity has a minimal polynomial that's a factor of $X^n-I$, but the eigenspaces can be whatever size you want by repeating diagonal elements
@AkivaWeinberger I tried and it is correct, i.e. the answer is a + b - gcd(a , b), but I was just wondering how to visualise it. I was heading it in this way - Consider the large a x b grid can be broken into some sub grids , all of which are of the same dimensions...
alternatively the vector space is a module over C[minimal polynomial], and this ring factors to C x C x C x ... x C by basically CRT, and so the module factors similarly into k subspaces, each of which T acts by a scalar
@AkivaWeinberger So basically we can assume that for coprime a and b the diagonal will never pass through any corner point. Logically it seems to be correct (it is indeed), is there any mathematical argument that can contribute towards it?
@Apptica How many times will it hit a corner point?
(For arbitrary a and b)
Write $m_A/(X-\lambda_i)$ as $g_i(X)$. Notice that, for every $i$, $g_i(A)v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalues $\lambda_i$.
Then by Bézout, $\sum f_ig_i=I$. Thus, $\sum f_i(A)g_i(A)v=v$, and we can write an arbitrary vector $v$ as a sum of eigenvectors, i.e. the eigenvectors span the space.
Hmm.. I'm writing a scholarship application for a masters, do you think it's necessary to have a "reasonable" idea of what one would be interested in for PhD study afterwards? How would one define "reasonable"?
So, I can assume that a set C is open iff every point is an interior point so that that means that for any given point in C there exists a neighborhood completely contained in C and so that means that these are not limit points of the complement and that neighborhood is disjoint from any point in the complement
but i'm not sure how to proceed
@AlessandroCodenotti My definition of open is that every point is an interior point. Closed means that every limit point of C is a point in C.
Every point in the universe is either an interior point of C or a limit point of the complement of C
Er actually that's not true because of the "other than $x$ itself" part of the definition of a limit point
For every point, either it has a neighborhood contained in C, or all of its neighborhoods intersect the complement of C
Thus, every point is either an interior point of C, or it's a limit point of the complement of C or contained in the complement of C or both
Suppose all of C's points are of the first type. Then all of its points are interior points of C, meaning C is open.
At the same time, this means that none of C's points are limit points of the complement of C (and clearly none of them are contained in the complement of C), and therefore all of C-complement's points are in C-complement, so C-complement is closed
I can say that: Assume C is open that means every point in C is an interior point so every point in C has a neighborhood completely contained in C. That means that it is not a limit point of the complement because it has a neighborhood
that doesnt contain any point in the complement of C. So if I consider x to be a limit point in the complement, then every neighborhood contains a point y in the complement such that x is not y. If I assume of the sake of contradiction that x is not in the complement then x has to be in C, and since C is open x has a neighborhood completely contained in C which is a contradiction, because I assumed that x is a limit point of the complement. Thus the complement is closed.
Am I right?
@AkivaWeinberger
@AkivaWeinberger but i'm also assuming that the complement has a limit point, why is that allowed?
@Thorgott SO are you saying that a universal quantification of x doesn't necessarily imply the existence of x? so if I say for all x, P(x) is true, that doesn't mean that there exists an x?
I see, it makes sense.
@Thorgott how would I formalize it in terms of quantifierss?
@Thorgott could you please explain the logic of your statement?
I think it should be $\forall x(x\in (C^C)^\prime\Rightarrow x\in C^C)$. The idea is that the statement is a so-called "Vacuous Truth", that is, an assertion about all members of an empty set, which is true, because the empty set has no members.
@JohnNash Hi Jasper! Nice to hear from you again, at least once in a while! I didn't forget you although I doubt you ever appreciated the calculations I'm interested in. Hope all is fine there and the new year will be great for you!
@LeakyNun Could you explain further, I don't currently see how a vector space over a field F could be a ring homomorphism, from one ring to another. Because I don't see how it makes sense to talk about the elements of the vector space, when it isn't even a set in that case?
@Perturbative if you have an $F$-vector space $V$ then you have a ring homomorphism $\varphi : F \to \operatorname{End}(V)$ defined by $\lambda \mapsto (v \mapsto \lambda v)$, while on the other hand if you start with such a homomorphism then you can give $V$ the structure of an $F$-vector space by defining $\lambda v := \varphi(\lambda) (v)$ (noting that $\varphi(\lambda) \in \operatorname{End}(V)$, confusing notation)
Oh, and in the "other hand" part, you're starting with an abelian group $V$
the "equivalence" is in the fact that the existence of such a homomorphism gives you a vector space, and the existence of a vector space gives rise to such a homomorphism
I'll go over what you said in more detail once I'm off mobile. So then am I correct in saying that for a field $F$ an $F$-module $V$ is a vector space, but a vector space $W$ need not be a a module over a field?
Okay I understand, but what if we take a field $k$ and consider a $k[x]$ module, which we'll call $V$. Then $V$ is a $k$-vector space but $k[x]$ is not a field. So $V$ in this case is not a module over a field, since $k[x]$ is at most a PID
If you have a ring homeomorphism $\varphi\colon A\to B$ and a $B$-module $M$ then it is also an $A$ module with $a\cdot m=\varphi(a)\cdot m$, so in particular a $k[x]$-module is also a $k$-module
you're not really changing the base ring, you just have an injection $k \hookrightarrow k[X]$ so you have a $k$-vector space sitting inside the $k[X]$-module. This is just the restriction of the $k[X]$ action to $k$.
I guess it remains why one expects infinitely many points at all, but I guess that if there were only finitely many zeroes the prime number theorem would be much stronger