« first day (2807 days earlier)      last day (2115 days later) » 
00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

8:00 PM
@danielunderwood I use my GPUs for my deep learning spell-corrector :D
 
Ahh the only NLP I've done was attempting to do sentiment analysis with n-grams and Bayesian something. I don't remember using a gpu on it, but it's been a while
 
they got deep learning pieces doing named entity recognition and stuff
 
I did start doing some MNIST stuff last night because I never tried that when I got started for whatever reason
 
so there is potential GPU speed ups...but atm the backend I'm using doesn't allow GPU for inference
only for training
MNIST more image recognition tho
 
Yeah but what I've heard is that it's kind of like the hello world of ML. I guess the hello world for NLP may be sentiment like I did before?
I remember NLP being kind of disconnected from other ML when I was messing with it, but don't know if that's changed
 
8:09 PM
@EmilioPisanty hmm. i was doing some reading on numerical methods for Fourier integrals and was curious if you had some perspective
(basically: most of the split-step Fourier stuff I've seen takes the perspective that one should 'obviously' approximate the continuous Fourier transform by writing it as a Riemann sum and doing the FFT on the sampled points. but the 'Numerical Recipes' bible (this section) specifically warns against this approach. so i'm a bit puzzled)
 
NLP has had a lot of improvement in terms of end-to-end solutions
so it's definitely become much more entwined with ML
like speech to text used to be all hand engineered features and stuff
nowadays you just put a deep RNN to do it
end to end
directly from an audio .wav file to a text transcription
 
I used NLTK when I did it, which I suppose is the old-school way. Looking at the libraries available, I also used spacy but I think it was in the beginning stages then
 
right
I'm using both
more spacy than NLTK though
 
8:25 PM
I should return to doing some of that. I miss programming where I actually have to think lol
 
lol
 
2 hours to demo/presentation lol
5 pc's testing things lolz
muahahahahahaha
still have to drive there too
damn lol
preparing 2 machines (real machines) and putting some vms together too
hopefully i don't crash and sleep during presentation/ or worse collapse lolz
 
Speaking of thinking and programming, I recently saw a question something like "Suppose you have two eggs that will break when dropped from a building. What's the worst case performance for finding the floor that they break when dropped from?" I know the question was meant for people who had memorized an algorithms class, but thinking it sounded like quite an optimization problem
I don't know if it's actually boring, but somehow I found it fascinating thinking about how to derive the solution
 
two eggs...
you only have 2 eggs? lol
 
Yeah. Basically the thought is you have to figure it out by dropping them and you're done if they both break
So I guess worse case is actually you decided to go top down and immediately broke both haha
 
8:32 PM
hmm
something really funky is happening in my code loool
 
But really I think the way to do it is start from the bottom. Like you could go up one by one which would be O(N), but you could also skip up 2 at a time and test the one below once one breaks. Or 3 up at a time and so on. I have a hunch that it's log(N) at the end, but not sure. I think you could have a "separation function" that determines how much you skip and optimize that
Yeah code tends to do that
And debugging ML stuff is the worst
 
yaasss I can smell the money. . . and access to panda express
hehe
let me just see if this runs :D
 
woah I'm baffled lol
 
If you take a break, there's roughly a 50% chance that the solution magically finds its way into your brain
A sane programmer would use that as a coffee break
 
oh
it's not a problem
I just couldn't identify the correct points
by eye lol
 
8:39 PM
Machine learning, not human learning!
 
hmmm there appears to be a mismatch of 1 going on somewhere, that's odd
oh no
I can't freaking read...nvm -.-
no bugs in the code
only bugs in my brain lol
time to beam search
 
Hey I do that like every day. Especially on SE titles for some reason
 
upgrading from peasant greedy search to beam greedy search
requires some thinking mmmhm
rubs beard
(unfortunately I have no beard)
 
They greatly increase your programming productivity...guess that explains why I'm so lazy during the summer
 
@enumaris peasant greedy search to beam greedy search. . . why? lol
i have no idea what does are lol :P
looking at vid on beam search . . . interesting . . . what are you using it for?
 
8:54 PM
spelling corrector :D
I feel like the deep learning model is doing pretty good...now i have to write some stuff on top of it to get the behavior I want
rather than black box behavior
 
lol "i have no idea what those are lol :P"
yeah, lol my brain is dead . . . been begging my pc to build some stuff all day, and it is not cooperating
 
need music
 
@Semiclassical this is news to me
 
9:15 PM
see also this question on MSE:
6
Q: How to compute Fourier coefficients using a cubic spline-corrected FFT?

DumpsterDoofusI'm not particularly experienced in numerical analysis, and so I recently had quite a massive shock when I discovered that sampling a smooth function and computing the FFT of the result does not return a correct$^1$ list of it's Fourier coefficients, despite theory saying that it ought to! As an...

I'm working on an answer there b/c (like the OP) I don't entirely follow the details of what they're doing in that section
@EmilioPisanty just to clarify: "don't use FFT naively" is what's new to you? (it was new to me, hence why I was surprised by it)
 
9:42 PM
progress!
music helps a lot lool
 
@Semiclassical correct
@Semiclassical hmmm.
that's one lonely question
 
rob
10:00 PM
@Semiclassical You know the expression "good, fast, cheap: pick any two"? Note that FFT has "fast" in its name.
 
@EmilioPisanty Yeah
 
@Semiclassical I don't have enough rep on mse to pull the kind of shit I do on pse, but have a sweetener
 
either you get it, or someone else puts up something even more amazing
 
10:06 PM
@rob well, the issue here isn't FFT as such but the discretization
frankly, FFT is a pretty notable exception the the "pick two" rule
it's a goddamn miracle is what it is
 
Sigh this is the physics chat
 
didn't read it
 
What makes me wonder a bit is whether that poster and I have the same application in mind
 
@enumaris Meant to post that in Math overflow
 
10:08 PM
I see
 
Well actually I guess someone here might be able to answer
"Consider the ODE $\frac{df}{dt} = F(t)$ and suppose $F(t)$ is integrable over an interval $I$. Then for all $t_0 \in I$, does there necessarily exist a unique particular solution satisfying the initial condition $F(t_0) = F_0$?"
 
in MathOverflow, 13 secs ago, by Emilio Pisanty
::tumbleweeds::
 
His seems to more about Fourier coefficients, where the range of integration is finite but the signal is supported on the entire range
 
the MO chat isn't the busiest, y'know
 
rob
@EmilioPisanty But ... the "fast" Fourier transform only works on discrete data?
 
10:09 PM
@rob correct
 
Whereas mine is Fourier transforms, where the range is in principal infinite but the support is finite
The big difference being the behavior near the endpoints
 
@SirCumference Picard Existence Theorem?
 
@rob as mentioned, there appear to be discretization issues, but absent that, if your data is already discrete, the FFT ticks all three boxes
as we say in my home town, Bueno, Bonito y Barato ;-)
 
In mathematics, in the study of differential equations, the Picard–Lindelöf theorem, Picard's existence theorem or Cauchy–Lipschitz theorem is an important theorem on existence and uniqueness of solutions to first-order equations with given initial conditions. The theorem is named after Émile Picard, Ernst Lindelöf, Rudolf Lipschitz and Augustin-Louis Cauchy. Consider the initial value problem y ′ ( t ) = f ( t , y ( t ) ) , ...
 
@bolbteppa Yeah but I first would need Peano's existence theorem to show existence
 
rob
10:10 PM
@EmilioPisanty Yes, I think I agree with you there.
 
just substitute Fast for Pretty
 
@EmilioPisanty Wouldn't chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/36/mathematics be better? MO is for math researchers, isn't it?
 
And it might be the case that the FFT issue being worried about isn’t pertinent when the signal vanishes at the endpoints
 
@bolbteppa Note I said "integrable", not "continuous"
 
'The Picard–Lindelöf theorem shows that the solution exists and that it is unique. The Peano existence theorem shows only existence, not uniqueness, but it assumes only that  f  is continuous in y, instead of Lipschitz continuous.'
 
10:11 PM
@Semiclassical that was my gut reaction tbh
 
And hence why it’s not emphasized for wave-packet scattering
 
@bolbteppa Eh, I always viewed Picard's theorem as requiring Peano's anyway
 
In mathematics, Carathéodory's existence theorem says that an ordinary differential equation has a solution under relatively mild conditions. It is a generalization of Peano's existence theorem. Peano's theorem requires that the right-hand side of the differential equation be continuous, while Carathéodory's theorem shows existence of solutions (in a more general sense) for some discontinuous equations. The theorem is named after Constantin Carathéodory. == Introduction == Consider the differential equation y ′ ( t )...
 
rob
@Semiclassical The endpoints are a big part of the problem: iirc, the FFT algorithm assumes that the signal wraps around from the end to the beginning.
 
It’s definitely an issue with some subtlety, at least
 
10:12 PM
Maybe Caratheodory
 
@Semiclassical "edge effects" < "compact support"
 
@bolbteppa I don't have the background in analysis for that, but does it hold for all integrable right hand sides?
 
rob
So for the math.se question you linked, where the asker took an FFT of $x^2$, there's a bunch of high-frequency garbage associated with the endpoints.
 
Maybe in a distribution book there is a theorem
idk I only really know/appreciate Picard's version
 
Good point
Whereas for a narrow Gaussian one would probably do better
 
10:14 PM
@bolbteppa My goal is to determine whether $\int_{a}^{t} F(s) ds$ is always a particular solution to such an ODE for a given constant $a$, such that it satisfies $f(a)=0$
 
That looks like the fundamental theorem of calculus?
 
Still an interesting issue, but probably not the source of any fundamental issues for wave-packet scattering
 
ayyyy bro it's not really a diff-eq if you have two different $f$'s....it's just says $F$ is the derivative of $f$
a diff-eq is more like $\dot{f}=f$
 
@bolbteppa Well sort of. I can certainly integrate, but I think I can only show it satisfies $f(a) = 0$ if integrability implies there exists a unique solution to $f(a) = 0$
 
There you have to solve for $f$. If you only say $\dot{f}=F$ then that's just defining a new function $F$ which you denote as the derivative of $f$
 
10:17 PM
You wrote $\frac{dy}{dx} = F(x)$, surely this means $\frac{dy(x)}{dx} = F(x)$, this is just calculus, differential equations are of the form $\frac{dy(x)}{dx} = f(x,y)$
 
@enumaris I mean it is an equation involving a derivative. And in that case the antiderivative is just the general solution
 
Maybe you meant $\frac{dy}{dt} = f(x(t),y(t))$?
 
@bolbteppa Well, no, autonomous ODEs for example are of the form $dy/dx = f(y)$
 
one does not generally think of statements like $v=\dot{x}$ as differential equations...only definitions
 
I don't think there's any specific criteria, so long as it's an equation involving a derivative
 
10:18 PM
@rob endpoints are always a nightmare in fourier analysis
 
The only exception is when your signal has the good taste of being analytic on the real line
 
@SirCumference you wrote $\frac{dy}{dt} = F(t)$ not $\frac{dy}{dt} = F(y)$
 
In that case, if given $x$ you can "solve" for $v$ by simply taking the derivative. Given $v$ and an initial condition $x_0$ you can "solve" for $x$ by taking the integral.
That's just the fundamental theorem of calculus
 
@bolbteppa Yes, but I'm showing that the RHS doesn't need to be of the form $f(x,y)$
 
@rob @Semiclassical fun fact, when I was writing this code for calculating high-order harmonics, I was unable to get the code to work with a monochromatic driver for something like two years.
 
10:20 PM
@enumaris That does not solve. You need an initial condition to get the original function $x$
 
turns out that it was almost certainly calculating the response correctly, but basically it sampled from $[0,T]$ instead of $[0,T)$, i.e. the endpoints were effectively repeated, which then ruined the FFT
 
sorry I typo'd
the initial condition is $x(t_0)=x_0$
 
@SirCumference the difference between a calculus problem $\frac{df}{dt} = F(t)$ and a differential equations problem $\frac{df}{dt} = F(t,f) = F(f)$ is the r.h.s. depends on $f$ as well as $t$, you wrote $\frac{df}{dt} = F(t)$ which is calculus, fundamental theorem of calculus realm, not ode realm
 
@bolbteppa I mean that's a matter of philosophy. IMO the ODE realm deals with "what functions satisfy this statement about their derivatives", which includes the "calculus problem"
 
well nobody else uses that terminology
so you might run into a lot of confusion
lol
 
10:23 PM
@enumaris I mean, that just requires an antiderivative, not an integral
 
they the same bro
 
@enumaris no, I think it's fine
 
@enumaris Ah come on, I don't think there's any specific definition
 
that's the fundamental theorem of calculus - relating anti-derivatives with integrals
 
@enumaris Ugggh....
 
10:23 PM
It's not philosophy, the behavior of functions $F(x,y,y') = 0$ (ode's) are insanely different to the behavior of functions $F(x,y') = 0$ (calculus problems)
 
it's a 'trivial' ODE in some senses, but it's an ODE nonetheless
 
Antiderivatives and integrals are not the same thing whatsoever
 
@enumaris and that's just some pretty hard-headed stubbornness over mere semantic tbh
 
o.O
 
The fundamental theorem does not state they are the same. It states that the sum of all the changes in a function equals the net change, i.e. the difference in antiderivatives
 
10:25 PM
well I could be wrong, but I've never met anyone who would refer to a simple equation like $v=\cdot{x}$ as a differential equation.
 
@SirCumference do you not appreciate the radical difference between functions $F(x,y') = 0$ and functions $F(x,y,y') = 0$?
 
If you insist on calling it an ODE, that's fine
I just think you're going to confuse a lot of people
sigh....
 
see e.g. the question below for that viewpoint in action
4
Q: How can I numerically pre-compute an indefinite integral with a parameter?

Emilio PisantySuppose I have a function $f(t)$, and I want to compute its indefinite integral $$F(t)=\int_0^tf(\tau)\mathrm d\tau.$$ Moreover, suppose that, for any of a number of reasons, I require this integral to be done numerically, I need it to be done in a single swoop for all $t$ in a range $[0,T]$ of i...

 
I mean I'm not here to argue semantics or technicalities.
 
Sigh, bad connection here
 
10:27 PM
@SirCumference if it's not true, and some counter-example exists, then there's a reasonably sizeable chance that it's listed in Counterexamples in Analysis
 
@bolbteppa I mean, whether I appreciate it or not doesn't really matter. They both try to analyze the derivative, and determine the functions that satisfy that
 
it's worth getting anyways
 
Obtaining the antiderivative (not an integral) is merely getting the general solution of such an ODE
 
The general form of a single-variable first order ordinary differential equation with a single dependent variable is that it is an equation of the form $F(x,y,z) = 0$ with $z = \frac{dy}{dx}$, if $F(x,y,y') = 0$ is not of the form $F(x,y,y') = y' - f(x,y) = 0$ then already things become insane, you can't just apply things like Picard's existence theorem, it's a whole separate topic of 'first order, higher degree' equations, with equations like Clairaut as an example etc
You definitely do need to distinguish which case you are discussing, and the case $F(x,y') = 0$ is again insane, if it takes the form $F(x,y') = y' - f(x) = 0$ then you have calculus problems
 
@bolbteppa how would a simpler function make the existing formalism not apply?
 
10:30 PM
It’s a differential equation in that it relates functuons to derivatives. It’s just a boring one
 
So asking for general differential equations theorems for the calculus case is bizarre
 
@bolbteppa I think it's pointless. The "calculus" problem is merely an ODE that is of the form obtained from differentiation; as such, you can solve it by trying to "reverse" the process of differentiation, i.e. "antidifferentiation"
That's as valid a technique for solving ODEs as any other, and it has a particular use
 
wow, OK. This discussion of semantics serves nobody at all
 
@EmilioPisanty What do you mean?
 
you can call the problem an ODE if you want, or you can refuse to call the problem an ODE if you want. It's irrelevant to the problem itself.
I propose that this discussion re-focus on the actual problem itself instead of what labels do or do not apply to it.
22 mins ago, by Sir Cumference
"Consider the ODE $\frac{df}{dt} = F(t)$ and suppose $F(t)$ is integrable over an interval $I$. Then for all $t_0 \in I$, does there necessarily exist a unique particular solution satisfying the initial condition $F(t_0) = F_0$?"
If $F(t)$ were continuous then $\exists!$ is almost certainly guaranteed
 
10:32 PM
@EmilioPisanty Yeah, but here I'm only saying it's integrable
 
show time. . . . off to client
 
if it's merely integrable, then it's not immediately clear to me that it does
 
If you ask for a differential equations existence theorem for a calculus problem it will just confuse people
 
@EmilioPisanty Well, my goal is this
19 mins ago, by Sir Cumference
@bolbteppa My goal is to determine whether $\int_{a}^{t} F(s) ds$ is always a particular solution to such an ODE for a given constant $a$, such that it satisfies $f(a)=0$
 
The fundamental theorem of calculus is a theorem that links the concept of differentiating a function with the concept of integrating a function. The first part of the theorem, sometimes called the first fundamental theorem of calculus, states that one of the antiderivatives (also called indefinite integral), say F, of some function f may be obtained as the integral of f with a variable bound of integration. This implies the existence of antiderivatives for continuous functions. Conversely, the second part of the theorem, sometimes called the second fundamental theorem of calculus, states that...
'We don't need to assume continuity of f on the whole interval. Part I of the theorem then says: if f is any Lebesgue integrable function on [a, b]... '
 
10:34 PM
I mean, $\nabla^2 f=0$ is a DE. So is $df/dt=0$
 
@bolbteppa The fundamental theorem is an easily misinterpreted theorem. It does not solve an ODE in the same way antidifferentiating and using an initial condition would
In fact, I'm not even sure it always gets a particular solution. That's what I'm trying to determine by my question
 
@SirCumference did you read the 'generalizations' section of that link and compare it to your question
 
And then $df/dt=F(t)$ is just the ingomogeneous form of the last ODE
 
forget it, I'm not getting into semantics again lol
 
@SirCumference that is different, and strictly weaker, than your initial statement
 
10:36 PM
@Semiclassical Well I mean, I'd say that's a system of PDEs
 
What?
 
$\nabla f = 0$
 
Yes technically calculus problems are differential equations if that's the point you're trying to make
 
Wait, nvm, misread the Laplacian as a gradient
@bolbteppa OK, let's move on to the actual question tho
 
But by this logic differential equations problems are simply constrained non-linear equations $f(x,y,z) = 0$ subject to the constraint $z = dy/dx$
 
10:38 PM
keep going more broad until the language has no meaning anymore :D
 
@EmilioPisanty Well, determining that an integral always gives a unique particular solution relies on integrability implying uniqueness and existence of particular solutions, no?
 
@SirCumference That assertion is false. Let $$F(s) = \begin{cases} 1 & s=0,1,2,\ldots, N \\ 0 & \text{otherwise}.\end{cases}$$ Then $F(s)$ is integrable but $f(t)=\int_0^t F(s) \mathrm d s$ is a differentiable function that does not satisfy $f'(t) = F(t)$.
In other words, Riemann integrability still allows the integrand to have pointwise departures from an otherwise-continuous output, and those do not get caught by the integral.
That counter-example also sinks your initial claim.
 
@EmilioPisanty Huh, awesome. Thanks
 
no worries.
0
A: How to compute Fourier coefficients using a cubic spline-corrected FFT?

robert bristow-johnsonThe FFT is no worse at computing the "Fourier Integral" (what we call in the DSP world the "Fourier Transform") than the Riemann summation is at computing an integral of a "non-pathological" function. Make the FFT larger and larger, sampling the continuous signal with finer and finer sampling pr...

 
Interestingly, this kind of thinking motivated Abelian integrals apparently
In mathematics, an abelian integral, named after the Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel, is an integral in the complex plane of the form ∫ z 0 z R ( x , w ) d x , {\displaystyle \int _{z_{0}}^{z}R(x,w)\,dx,} where R ( x , w ) {...
 
10:45 PM
In other news, I’m typing this from a car and this is what the local weather radar looks like: weather.com/weather/radar/interactive/l/USMN0926:1:US
 
@EmilioPisanty So just to make sure I'm interpreting this correctly, integrating an integrable derivative does not necessarily give you a function with that derivative, right?
For lack of elegant speaking
 
@Semiclassical we're hovering just under 30°C and sunny
I'm struggling with feeling sorry for your weather predicament
@SirCumference No. That's a very different assertion.
If you know that $F(t)$ is a derivative, then you know that there exists (at least one) $f(t)$ such that $F(t)=f'(t)$, which precludes the kind of pointwise jumps in my example.
Neither of your initial claims set any restrictions on $F(t)$ beyond it being integrable.
You need to be extremely careful with how you phrase your claims.
 
@EmilioPisanty Sigh, right. Didn't think of that
 
About 25 C here, but it’s hard to appreciate the difference when it’s raining so much
 
but it's close to right. The derivative of the integral of an integrable function need not coincide with the integrand.
 
10:52 PM
@EmilioPisanty Ah, awesome. That's pretty surprising (assuming you mean the derivative still exists and is unequal with that)
 
Main concern is whether the roads are flooded
 
well, not particularly, or at least not when you understand the basic mechanism
 
@EmilioPisanty Basic mechanism?
 
@SirCumference that pointwise changes don't affect the integral and are therefore not imprinted onto $f(t)$.
@SirCumference this is where it gets surprising
> A differentiable function whose derivative is positive at a point but which is not monotonic in any neighbourhood of that point
that's the kind of stuff that should knock you, at least at first
 
@EmilioPisanty Ah, I actually didn't even think of pointwise changes.
 
10:58 PM
it's a hard knock life
for us
 
20 mins ago, by Emilio Pisanty
@SirCumference That assertion is false. Let $$F(s) = \begin{cases} 1 & s=0,1,2,\ldots, N \\ 0 & \text{otherwise}.\end{cases}$$ Then $F(s)$ is integrable but $f(t)=\int_0^t F(s) \mathrm d s$ is a differentiable function that does not satisfy $f'(t) = F(t)$.
 
@EmilioPisanty Yeah, I looked more closely and realized what you meant
 
18 mins ago, by Emilio Pisanty
In other words, Riemann integrability still allows the integrand to have pointwise departures from an otherwise-continuous output, and those do not get caught by the integral.
 
@EmilioPisanty And I guess I read that too quickly
Welp I deserve a dunce cap at this point
 
Comparing to the wiki generalization it seems like if $F(s)$ were continuous at some $s_0$ and $F$ integrable it would force $f'(s_0) = F(s_0)$, but not necessarily otherwise
 
11:00 PM
@EmilioPisanty Not sure how to interpret "dense"
 
That it’s largely a matter of pointwise changes does tell you why it’s not relevant to a lot of typical applications
 
@EmilioPisanty What
how
 
can $f(x)$ be continuous at a point $x_0$ but discontinuous at every point of a neighbourhood of $x_0$?
 
For instance, you’d never worry about it for the notion of a particle in classical mech
 
@bolbteppa that kind of behaviour might scupper this.
In topology and related areas of mathematics, a subset A of a topological space X is called dense (in X) if every point x in X either belongs to A or is a limit point of A, that is the closure of A is constituting the whole set X. Informally, for every point in X, the point is either in A or arbitrarily "close" to a member of A — for instance, every real number either is a rational number or has a rational number arbitrarily close to it (see Diophantine approximation). Formally, a subset A of a topological space X is dense in X if for any point x in X, any neighborhood of x contains at least one...
@SirCumference get the book.
 
11:02 PM
(Brownian motion, on the other hand...)
 
@SirCumference that one probably isn't very hard to achieve.
$$f(x) = x + x^2 \sin(1/x)$$ should do it
 
@Semiclassical Heh "applications"
Engineers are obsessed with "applications"
 
@SirCumference he's talking about applications to other math
 
Yes, and they make bridges stay up :P
 
11:05 PM
@EmilioPisanty The derivative is positive at zero?
 
@SirCumference yes
 
Wait, yes, I'm an idiot
 
probably
 
harsh
 
11:06 PM
if not, then up the exponent to $x^4\sin(1/x)$ or something
 
@EmilioPisanty So basically my claim about the ODE is true for discontinuous $F$ only if it is pointwise discontinuous?
Sigh
 
@SirCumference no, that is not what I claimed
 
Jesus that wasn't at all what you said
I'm out to lunch
 
good
@SirCumference Duh, I missed the obvious counter-example, no. 6 on the image above
> a function $f$ such that $g(x) = \int_0^x f(t)dt$ is everywhere differentiable with a derivative different from $f(x)$ on a dense set.
the fact that this is as far as they go makes me suspect that $g'(x)$, thus defined, must agree with $f(x)$ at least some of the time.
 
@EmilioPisanty Right. But does this apply only when $f(t)$ is pointwise discontinuous?
 
11:14 PM
not fun beans
 
@SirCumference no, why are you mis-reading that in the same way again?
 
@EmilioPisanty My god...
I need to sleep
 
pointwise discontinuities are one way to get this type of behaviour, nobody has even hinted at the possibility that they'd be the only way
get some sleep/food/whatever, and re-approach this with a topped-up energy.
 
@EmilioPisanty Yep... oye
 
and take some time to think carefully about the examples and claims above.
 
11:16 PM
Evidently I'm not reading them carefully enough
Well I'll get back to them later. Thanks a lot for your time tho
 
no worries.
 
@EmilioPisanty Is that from the book you linked?
 
@SirCumference yes. Get it. Read it.
it's printed by Dover for the usual low fare.
on lighter matters
35
Q: Have there been any "Is this a scam?" questions that the answer was "No"?

BlackThornI think most here would agree that whenever someone asks Is this a scam, the answer is almost certainly, Yes, this is a scam. Have there been any instances of questions like these where the answer was actually, No?

surprisingly, the answer is yes, there have indeed been such questions on the Money SE
 
I should probably take a real analysis course first tho, to make sure I don't confuse myself with these exceptions before I have an intuition on what usually happens
 
@SirCumference there's no harm in getting the book
it may be a good idea to take a solid course first
but please don't think of the entries in that book as "exceptions"
there's no notion of "usually" in analysis
there's either "always" or "not always" and that's it
the counter-examples in that book are, generally, incredibly useful at highlighting the structural patterns in the theory
 
11:27 PM
@EmilioPisanty I mean yeah, but an intuition generally lessens the chance of misinterpreting them, imo
That and careful reading, which I seem to lack
 
00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

« first day (2807 days earlier)      last day (2115 days later) »