« first day (2859 days earlier)      last day (2459 days later) » 

00:00
or you could say coverings of $\Bbb C^\times$ since we talked about that more
@MatheinBoulomenos but their limits are different now
what are you talking about? limits of categories? I don't think you're actually talking about limits in the category of categories
well I think you know what I mean
they are all canonically subcategories of some category
I'm taking limit there
I'm not sure what you mean is well-defined
wonders if Leaky forgot to cook dinner again tonight
00:02
canonically well-defined
@TedShifrin oh I ate tonight :P
thanks
a category is a subcategory of many different categories
yes, but we all know which category we're in
i know it isn't well-defined
@MatheinBoulomenos don't you get canonically the universal cover?
which has galois group Z instead of Z-hat
anyway
if $K$ is a global field
choose an algebraic closure $\overline K$
then we have $\Gamma = \operatorname{Gal}(\overline{K}/K)$
does $\Gamma$ have trivial outer automorphism group?
you need to take the separable closure here
right
no
let's say it's a finite extension of Q
everything works fine
it definitely doesn't have trivial outer automorphism group I think
00:07
because my professor tells this story
two people constructed their own algebraic closures L and M
and then they wrote down an isomorphism from their algebraic closure to the other guy's algebraic closure
and then when you compose them together, there's a 0% chance you get the identity
you'll be conjugating by something
and then he gave the geometric analogue
that if $X$ is path-connected, then $\pi_1(X,x)$ and $\pi_1(X,y)$ are isomorphic, but not in a canonically way
it is isomorphic up to a choice of path
and then the isomorphism is a conjugation
probably the absolute galois group of $\Bbb Q$ has trivial outer automorphism group, but when you have a number field of degree $>1$ over $\Bbb Q$ (say Galois), then the absolute Galois group will have non-trivial outer automorphism Galois group
this follows from the Neukirch-Uchida-Pop theorem
that's a very curious name
which says that automorphisms of a number field correspond to outer automorphisms of the absolute Galois group
I see
hmm, so he's telling the story in $\Bbb Q$ then
so iff it has non-trivial automorphisms it will have non-trivial outer automorphisms of the absolute Galois group
00:11
his stories are quite interesting
so the only number field with that property is $\Bbb Q$
he said, there's an element of Gal(Q-bar/Q) called the complex conjugation
one element? there are a lot
humour me
and then look at the three roots of X^3-2, let's call them alpha,beta,gamma
never humor Leaky
00:12
@TedShifrin :(
which one does that element fix?
then he goes on to say that this question is nonsensical
besides, in Britain it should be humour
everything is non-canonical
and we should look at its conjugacy class instead
i.e. we look at its one-dimensional representations
one dimensional-representations throw a lot of more information away then just conjugacy
every one-dimensional representation factors over the abelianization
I see
oh, I mean, n-dimensional representations
just representations
so we're essentially just looking at $\operatorname{Gal}(\overline{\Bbb Q},\Bbb Q)^{ab}$ which is $\widehat{\Bbb Z}^\times$
these are still uncanonical
00:15
why is that that?
you still have conjugation in representations of higher degree
oh, it's Kronecker-Weber
but you can take e.g. characteristic polynomials which will be independent of conjugation
we look at the characters
okay
I'm actually taking a course on Galois representations right now
00:17
interesting
we don't really work with characters, though
so in the setting of a non-archimedean local field $K$
with ring of integers $\mathcal O_K$ and residue field $k$
Also one thing to note: complex representations of profinite groups are kinda boring. If $\rho: G \to \operatorname{GL}_n(\Bbb C)$ is a continuous representation where $G$ is profinite, then the image of $\rho$ is finite
@TedShifrin change my mind: $\operatorname{GL}_n$ is a scheme
I don't do this stuff.
00:20
so you just have a representation of the finite group $G/\operatorname{ker}(\rho)$
@MatheinBoulomenos so, in the setting above
@TedShifrin 2algebraic4u
@MatheinBoulomenos under the equivalence of categories above
to the freshman LA class "the determinant is a homomorphism of group schemes $\mathrm{GL}_n \to \mathrm{GL}_1$"
41 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
For any non-archimedean local field $K$ (ring of integers $\mathcal O_k$ and residue field $k$), the following three categories are canonically equivalent:
1. $L/K$ finite unramified extension
2. $R/\mathcal O_K$ unramified ring extension
3. $l/k$ finite separable extension
taking the canonical non-well-defined limits of 1 and 3 respectively
we get a separable closure K-bar of K, and an algebraic closure k-bar of k
00:22
wouldn't you get unramified extension of K that may have infinite degree?
For 1
I don't know anymore
well, since "taking a limit" in this sense is undefined, there's no point in arguing
@Mathein I don't know about that stuff, but let's chase it through. How would you calculate colimits in a presheaf category?
@MikeMiller pointwise (this works for any functor category)
and then you have to sheafify
@MatheinBoulomenos is "taking the limit of the fintie unramified extensions of K" well-defined?
00:25
@LeakyNun note though that any possibly infinite unramified extension is a colimit of finite unramified extensions and every algebraic extension of $l/k$ (separable is superfluous, as we noted) is a colimit of finite algebraic extensions
both colimits are filtered actually
non-filtered probably don't exist because fields are weird categorically
is taking the algebraic closure of K a good thing to do?
note that "filtered colimit" is a fancy way of taking unions here
@LeakyNun if you want to have an algebraically closed field, sure
my professor says that K-bar/K gives k-bar/k
but if I should take the "limit" of that category, whatever that should be, it would be unramified extensions
gives?
in what sense
in the sense that if you have K-bar, then looking at its residue field gives k-bar
00:28
There's a surjective continuous homomorphism
that's true
but you can also take $K^{ur}$
we don't need unramified for that one?
oh
purely ramified extensions don't change the residue field at all
and then it turns out that every automorphism of K-bar that fixes K gives an automorphism of k-bar that fixes k
so Gal(K-bar/K) maps to Gal(k-bar/k)
but the latter is just Z-hat
then this map is supposed to be surjective
00:30
yeah
that's nontrivial
this holds in a lot more generality
now Z lives as a dense subset of Z-hat
generated by arithmeticus Frobenius or geometricus Frobenius
00:31
are you defining the Weil group now?
bingo
that's isomorphic to $K^\times$
its abelianization is
how do you define its topology?
00:33
I was thinking about $W(K^{alg}/K)$ because that's what I've been working with this whole time
but that's what I said
hmm, I don't think that a topology on the Weil group is used
it is
I worked through the proof of local CFT and it never mattered
because the continuous 1-cocycle from W_K to ${}^LT$ is supposed to be in bijection with something
00:35
I don't think the right topology on the Weil group is the subspace topology
(if you use one)
no, it isn't
my professor emphasised
you don't use the induced topology from Z-hat for Z
you use the discrete topology
now is this a pullback? do I just use the pullback topology?
pullback? you mean quotient topology?
Gal(K-bar/K) surjects to Z-hat
Z with discrete topology injects to Z-hat
take the pullback and obtain $W_K$
I don't think that's called a pullback
But I see what you mean
@LeakyNun the proof of that surjectivity is Thm. 9.4 in chapter 1 of Neukirch
he proves it for finite extensions, but you can lift that to infinite ones
what's the topology on ${}^LT$?
00:46
what is $^LT$?
good question
it's the langlands dual
no idea about that
T-hat is a complex torus equipped with a left Gal(K/F)-action
then you take the semidirect product of the two groups mentioned
and then you get ${}^LT$
@MatheinBoulomenos what should I read to learn more about the above discussion?
well, for basics on local fields, Serre - local fields or Neukirch chapter 2
For the Langlands stuff, maybe Bushnell-Henniart "The local Langlands Conjecture for GL(2)"
I don't need GL(2) though
00:58
this has an elementary proof of a special case
I just need GL(1)
I don't know what you need
I just told you
GL(1) is class field theory
I feel like ${}^LT$ is a nice group
it's easy to work with
it's just a bunch of $C^\times$ semidirectproduct a finite group
but $W_K$
here be dragons
01:00
Bushnell-Henniart talks about the topology of the Weil group
I see
I'd recommend Serre - local fields, as I mentioned
it doesn't have this langlands stuff
but you need CFT first anyway
Also note the answers to this MO question: mathoverflow.net/questions/66500/…
01:23
@MatheinBoulomenos what a coincidence
my professor commented on your link
01:34
@Daminark hi
 
2 hours later…
03:51
Yo
 
1 hour later…
05:08
Quick question, if in measure theory, why do we say $|f| = f+ + f-$ when in every situation $|f| = f^+$?
05:21
I think only b,c are correct, because, since we are working with real matrices, we can't reduce $x^2+1$, so it is characteristic polynomial. Hence two distinct eigenvalues, hence $A$ spans $\Bbb R^2$.
Am i correct?
@Daminark
@LeakyNun?
05:53
[Random]
06:06
@anakhronizein Strange: Say $f, g : M \to N$ are two "isotopic maps", in the sense that there is a 1-parameter family of diffeomorphisms $h_t : M \to M$ with $h_0 = \text{id}$ so that $g = f \circ h_1$. Then the fact that $f_* = g_*$ in de Rham cohomology is actually a consequence of Cartan's magic formula, I think.
Namely, let $X_t \in \text{vect}(M)$ be the infinitisimal generator of $\{h_t\}$. Let's see if I am right. Consider a form $\omega \in \Omega^\bullet(N)$. By Cartan, $\mathcal{L}_X \omega = \iota_X d\omega + d \iota_X \omega$ (I'm omitting the time-dependence of $X$), which means $\partial_t (f \circ h_t)^* \omega = \iota_X d\omega + d \iota_X \omega$.
$\iota_X : \Omega^\bullet(M) \to \Omega^{\bullet - 1}(M)$ being the contraction map (varying with time)
Integrate this from $t = 0$ to $t = 1$
That says $f^*\omega - g^*\omega = P d\omega + d P \omega$ where $P = \int_0^1 \iota_{X_t} dt$.
That's all, isn't it?
What the fuck is this proof though
@BalarkaSen playing with fire again :-)
3
did i get f l a g g e d
You might say that but I couldn't possibly comment
Maybe that comment is offensive to the proof community
Sid
Sid
@BalarkaSen You might want to tone down a bit..
(Someone flagged that. I think there were 2 flags in that)
06:21
You're always taking a risk when you use four letter words. Some people find them offensive.
@Sid There wasn't a tone-up. I claim the flags are troll flags, exploiting solely the fact the message contains expletives.
If someone finds it offensive, they should speak up publicly, in which case I'm happy to stop using expletives.
Preemptively stopping using expletives would be an option of course ...
Yes, but that wouldn't make a good case for demonstrating my claim that the flags were ill-intentioned.
Hi everyone! I am getting this problem wrong: I thought that because $n \rightarrow \infty$, 1/n is zero and everything becomes 0; which wasn't right. Hints?
A form of appeasement I guess, @Balarka
06:32
If someone publicly says "Hey, can we not use those words please" I'm of course happy to comply by common human decency, just to be clear.
@BalarkaSen it's not obvious the flag was ill intentioned. Some people genuinely find expletives offensive. I'm not especially keen on them myself since I think they're a lazy was to add emphasis when the language offers so many more colourful options.
@JohnRennie It can easily be made clear by using discourse and not flagging, which is what I am offering right now.
@BalarkaSen the onus is not on the flagger to explain their actions.
If someone finds expletives offensive they are quite within their rights to flag without comment
2
Then it's perfectly ok to claim that the flag was ill-intentioned, because there is no evidence on the contrary.
As in absence of proof = proof of absence? :-)
06:35
Claim, not proof.
They are guilty unless proven innocent beyond any reasonable doubt.
I'll be cautious about weighing in on this too much but I believe the point is that given the history of flags on this chat, and how it seemed like at various times Balarka was flagged for expletives while neighboring messages that also contained expletives weren't (or at least not enough for a flag ban), that there may be some element of dishonesty in the use of flags that lurks in the chat generally
@John Of course Balarka cannot give evidence about flags (by their very nature). The claim is that experience has shown that things that are innocuous tend to get flagged at a bizarre rate. It is indeed quite easy to half-assedly harass people using flags (just an argument about the way the system is built, not reality).
On the other hand I'm pretty sure the fact that he keeps saying "fuck" means he accepts the trade-off of receiving what seem to be troll-flags and bans; it's only 30 minutes. Unclear to me if there's value in the reminder.
Now, in any particular context of course this may or may not be the case, and the flaggers are still acting within the rights given by the chat, it's not completely out of left field to believe that it's an abuse. I believe Balarka's willing to accept being flag banned if this were to happen because technically rules are being followed, but that he doesn't necessarily see a moral duty to not swear given the supposed likelihood of said dishonesty
(I agree with the good summaries of what my standpoint is given by Daminark and Mike above)
06:42
Shrug. In your place I'd simply stop painting a target on my back.
4
In your place I'd listen to the other point of view than simply sounding condescending.
Don't worry. Math chat is a lot more stable than other chats due to having a 90% weird population and The Weirdness is known to have some protective effect
(Gotta be glad that Mike, Eric and couple many others have became weird as well exam people are not frequent recently, as it really helps to stabilise the chat)
@BalarkaSen If that sounded condescending then I apologise because that wasn't what I intended. All I'm saying is that if you suspect people are maliciously flagging you then using expletives is giving them the excuse to flag then claim (if it ever came to court) that they were acting in good faith.
06:57
@Tug'Tegin Did you try Newton-Leibitz's summation formula to convert it into a definite integral?
@abcd no, but i am going to try!
@Tug'Tegin So try, its easy you'll get the answer
@abcd thanks!
@Tug'Tegin Also your reasoning was incorrect because numerator can (read: will) reach power 6 when summed up
[Random]
Currently trying to define a uncountable magnifying glass by defining some map that maps arbitrary small spacings between rationals to some constant separation
Ideally, such map will visualise the holes that is the irrationals in the reals
07:02
@abcd I thought that i don't need the newton - leibitz's integral because there were limit and sigma sign and I was studying those topics.
I wonder what a countably dense set look like at that resolution...?
@Tug'Tegin That's how such problems are solved... I did 10-20 like them 2-3 days back
07:15
2 hours ago, by Silent
user image
I think only b,c are correct, because, since we are working with real matrices, we can't reduce $x^2+1$, so it is characteristic polynomial. Hence two distinct eigenvalues, hence $A$ spans $\Bbb R^2$.
@Abcd, will you please check this?
@JohnRennie I agree, and as Daminark and Mike pointed out, I'm fine with being flag-banned for my messages which contains expletives regardless of the intention of the flagger. I just don't think I should, by some unspoken moral code, stop using expletives because of flag-bans.
Because, by my hypothesis, they are ill-intentioned. Until and unless someone comes up and says they are actually offended by it in non-anonymously, I see no reason I should stop using expletives, given that I'm fine with 30 minute flag-bans.
Notice the parsing. I'm explicitly saying I don't want to offend people. But I do not think the flaggers are actually offended.
Guys I have a question
Does someone know what to do if you have a minimization problem f(x) with constraints $g_i(x)\ge 0$? I need to have $g_i(x)\le 0$ and I can have that If I multiply by -1, my question is if the function f(x) also changes ?
because the feasible region will change
Thirty sweets were distributed equally among some kids .Sucking in the sweetness ,a budding mathematician said,
@JohnRennie "had we been one less ,each would have got one more sweet." How many kids were there?
@Akash.B how did you try it?
07:30
@AvnishKabaj Ah yes
Lol
How can we divide 29?
Number of sweets is still the same
We would get points in the answer
07:32
Number of kids has reduced
@Akash.B Huh?
@Abcd it is just nothing
30/n = q
30/(n-1) = q+1
07:48
30/(n-1)
29/n = q+1
29/n = 30/n + 1
nvm, sorry I need sleep
@skull oh I see
@JohnRennie I need some help ^^^
08:05
30/n = q
30/(n-1) = q+1
Anyone able to help with this analysis/minimax problem? mathb.in/25686
/linear algebra
Could someone show my mistake here: $$\lim \limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^n (\frac{2k}{n})^5 = \int_{1}^n \frac{32k^5}{n^6}=32 \int_{1}^n \frac{1}{n^6}=-\frac{32}{5n}$$?
08:22
for one thing your limit makes no sense
second of all why do . you think that the sum = the integral
everything
it makes no sense
re-read what you wrote down
mercio anythoughts on my problem?
What is symmetric?Please explain geometrically and in terms of displacements. I have encountered this while looking up for engineering strain and true strain values have totally different compression and expansion parameters for their respective strains.
@DrewBrady (i know it took me long to respond) for me the problem resembled the formula $$\lim \limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{i=1}^n f(x_i)\Delta x=\int_a^b f(x) dx$$
try again
what you wrote again makes zero sense
I know what you are trying to write down, but I will let you show me that you know what it is you are trying to write down.
08:44
can someone who's good at logic check this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2805136/… ?
thank you very much
09:07
did you get the answer? @Akash.B
30/n = q
30/(n-1) = q+1
sub q = 30/n into the second equation and solve for n
30/(n-1) = 30/n + 1
@Silent are we on to $A^2=-I$ again
anyone able to help: mathb.in/25689 ?
09:31
30n = 30(n-1) + n(n-1)
30n = 30n - 30 + n^2 - n
Is there anyone here that knows about optimization?
The question is long and if no one knows about it..
Hello. Can anyone help me to understand it? I really need it
0
Q: Help with Conjugate points

mathvc_I want to understand the proposition 3.7 from the note here: Proposition 3.7. Let $(M, g)$ be a globally hyperbolic spacetime, S a Cauchy hypersurface with future-pointing unit normal vector field $n$, $\Sigma \subset S $ a compact 2-dimensional submanifold with unit normal vector field...

anyone able to help: mathb.in/25689 ?
0 = n^2 - n - 30 = (n - 6)(n + 5); n=6 Answer @Akash.B
@DrewBrady why the link is not blue here?
09:38
not sure lol
09:50
any ideas?
10:07
@LeakyNun sorry for that
10:21
If we try to interpret geometrically, we see that we can't draw a unique tangent, can we?
@SwapnilDas, see
Saw
It's not unique, neither a tangent
What does y = x*|x| look like?
Half cut parabolas
Well you could there also :P
in cartoon form it looks like x^3
10:30
@LeakyNun, is it true that: Let $f:[0,1]\to \Bbb R$ be a twice differentiable function, then, if $f$ and $f'$ bounded, then $f''$ bounded, too?
it would suffice to show that f bounded implies f' bounded
@Silent I don't think so, but I don't have any counter-examples
(or to check that)
pick some crazy oscillating thing
basically
and squish it into a bounded interval to get a contradiction
even easier
the l_0.5 'norm
sqrt(|x|)
cut it off smoothly
it blows up at 0.
10:46
If $f$ is non-polynomial, then $f'$ has to be non-polynomial?
thank u!
11:10
Hello one and all! Any suggestions for solving a DE of the form $$x''(t) + x(t) = e^x(t)$$? I know I can multiply by $$x'(t)$$ and integrate but I would prefer any other way
11:50
hi , i got a question
suppose $F_p \subset K \subset \overline{F_p}$ with $[K:F_p] \lt \infty$.
i need to prove that there is $N$ s.t for all $n\ge N$ , $Fr \ ^ {n!}$ is the identity on $K$. someone can help?
$Fr(x) = x \ ^ p$
$K$ is a finite field, and $K^\times$ is a group
$K$ is a vector space over $\Bbb F_p$, so its size is a power of $p$
Let's say $|K| = p^N$
Then $|K^\times| = p^N - 1$
by Lagrange, $x^{p^N-1} = 1$ for every $x \in K^\times$
i.e. $x^{p^N} = x$ for every $x \in K^\times$
but $0$ also satisfies that, so $x^{p^N} = x$ for every $x \in K$
i.e. $\operatorname{Fr}^{N}$ is the identity on $K$
ok im with you till now, but what with $n \ge N$ ?
well
$\operatorname{Fr}^{(n+1)!} = (\operatorname{Fr}^{n!})^{n+1}$
so if you are the identity, you composed with yourself a lot of times is still the identity
right right i was confusing.. i thought it will be $x \ ^ {n+1}$ forgot it is a composition
thanks..
did you use the fact that $[K : F_p]$ is a power of $p$ @LeakyNun ?
12:06
that's not true
sorry ,that $|K|$ is a power of $p$
sure
11 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
$K$ is a vector space over $\Bbb F_p$, so its size is a power of $p$
ok. im not sure how to justify it.. can you help?
in fact, $|K| = p^{[K:\Bbb F_p]}$
I already told you
it's because it's a vector space
@MatheinBoulomenos Salve
@LeakyNun why that implies it?
12:08
@LeakyNun Χαῖρε!
@Liad if $e_1, \cdots, e_n$ is a basis of $V$ over a field $F$
then every element of $V$ can be uniquely represented as $\sum a_i e_i$ with $a_i \in F$
so $|V| = |F|^n$
ok nice. thanks
12:55
I want to calculate the Taylor polynomial of order $m$ at$x_0=\left (\pi, \frac{\pi}{2}\right )$ for the function $f:\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x)=\cos (x_1+x_2)$.

We have the following:

\begin{align*}&f\left (\pi, \frac{\pi}{2}\right )=\cos \left (\frac{3\pi}{2}\right )=0\\ &\frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_1}}=\frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_2}}=-\sin (x_1+x_2) \Rightarrow \frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_1}}\left (\pi, \frac{\pi}{2}\right )=\frac{\partial{f}}{\partial{x_2}}\left (\pi, \frac{\pi}{2}\right )=1\\ &\frac{\partial^2{f}}{\partial{x_1}^2}=\frac{\partial{f}}{\pa
13:49
can anyone who studied logic please check: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2805457/… ? it would help me a lot
14:09
I think $v_1=cv_2$, hence a and b are correct
Is it correct?
@LeakyNun
and d, too
@Silent well you would need to justify what you think
14:24
@LeakyNun $v_3$ not linear combination of $v_1,v_2$ yet $v_1,v_2,v_3$ are linearly dependent, so, $v_1,v_2$ have to be co-linear.
14:36
@LeakyNun Since they are linearly dependent, $av_1+bv_2+cv_3=0$ for some $(a,b,c)\ne(0,0,0)$, and since $v_3$ not linear combination of first two vectors, $c=0$, since if not we could take $cv_3$ other side and divide by $c$, making $v_2$ linear combination. Hence, $av_1+bv_2=0$, hence conclusion.
Thanks for pushing me
go on then
in CSIR-TIFR-ISI-NBHM, 13 mins ago, by Maneesh Narayanan
2
Q: Dimension of $Image(T)$ and $Image(T^2)$

Jesse P Francis Given a $4\times4$ real matrix $A$, let $T:\mathbb R^4\to \mathbb R^4$ be the linear transformation defined by $Tv=Av$, where we think of $\mathbb R^4$ as the set of real $4\times1$ matrices. For which choices of $A$ given below, do the $Image(T)$ and $Image(T^2)$ have respective dimension 2 a...

My approach was giving arbitrarary $a,b,c,d$ number to the $*$. then find $A^2$.
But it is time consuming.
using that method (a) and (b) are correct.
@LeakyNun So, $a$ or $b$ nonzero, hence $v_1=cv_2$, hence $v_1$ linear combination of $v_2,v_3$ and has dimension $2$ or less, and we can see that there is no need for $v_3$ to be 0.
@secret do you have any alternative approach?
@Silent you don't know that v1 = cv2
14:57
o great i miscount the dimensions
@LeakyNun I can't think otherwise! I think that two vectors are linearly dependent iff they are parallel

« first day (2859 days earlier)      last day (2459 days later) »