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Anonymous
7:00 AM
@BernardoMeurer Meninists wouldn't like that statement.
 
@Blue What's a meninist?
 
Anonymous
@BernardoMeurer Opposite of feminist.
 
Anonymous
You're old for sure
 
Ah
Why not?
 
Anonymous
To keep both groups happy you need to superpose "men" and "women" in that statement to give equal status to both. One shouldn't come before another. lol :'D
 
Anonymous
7:02 AM
Use your CS skills to do that. :P
 
Anonymous
Meh...that was a bad joke. I should just get back to studying Electronics.
 
I have placed a GIF into a pdf before
For my lab report on designing a CPU with VHDL
 
It's cover picture was the death star shooting it's laser
 
This is one of the most absurd funny things I have seen in a while
 
7:03 AM
and then in the end there was a gif of it exploding
 
@BalarkaSen Crash Bandicoot?
 
yup, the cancer of the memeworld
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Yes, please!
 
@JohnRennie What's the word for an email you send out to someone after the first one which they have not responded to
It's not reminder
 
(This is not spam) VVVVVVVVVVVVVVVVVVVVV
google it
 
7:14 AM
@Kaumudi Right now?
 
@BernardoMeurer follow-up?
 
@JohnRennie Exactly!
Thank you
Here's a video to pay you back for your services
 
loooool
 
This, however is spam:
$Capitalism^{Capitalism}Capitalism^{Capitalism}Capitalism^{Capitalism}Capitalism^{Capitalism}Capitalism^{Capitalism}Communism$
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Whenever you can.
 
7:16 AM
The above is open to interpretations
 
@Kaumudi.H Ok, let me give a teaser trailer
You know what a graph is?
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Lol.
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen I think so. I watched those videos and got an idea, yes.
 
@Kaumudi So you have three kind of objects coming from a graph. (1) Vertices (2) Edges (3) Faces
 
user228700
7:19 AM
Right.
 
Vertices are just the dots, edges are the lines joining the dots and faces are areas bounded by the edges (think of a triangle, though it may not necessarily be a triangle)
 
user228700
Yes, right.
 
For a given graph denote the number of vertices, edges and faces to be $v$, $e$ and $f$ respectively.
 
user228700
Hmm.
 
ϖ--------------ϖ
|
|
|
ϖ--------------ϖ
A graph with 4 vertices and 3 edges
 
7:21 AM
And zero faces.
 
indeed
 
user228700
Right.
 
@Kaumudi.H A small note. Notice that your graph needs to be "planar" for faces to be well-defined.
This, is not planar. Edges intersect each other. So the idea of a "face" is not well-defined.
 
@BalarkaSen are you good with tensor notation? :3
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Planar=None of the edges intersect? That's, hmm, OK.
 
7:22 AM
Planar means it can be drawn on a plane without intersections :)
 
Is it meaningful to define some notion of hyperfaces for graphs, or just vetices, edges and faces are sufficient?
 
You can draw the graph on the 3D space without intersections say
Just slightly lift up some edges towards you from the page
 
user228700
OK...
 
But that's a digression
Consider the number $\chi = v - e + f$
 
user228700
Ah, that's the Euler characteristic, isn't it?
 
7:24 AM
@Kaumudi.H Draw your favorite graph and compute $\chi$ for me.
Yep, it is. Do you know the story?
 
user228700
Well, only a little. In the video, she went on about how it is -2 for some contrived graph and I didn't understand that at all.
 
If you draw a planar connect graph, then $\chi = 1$ always ever
Try computing some examples!
Start with the dumb example, square.
 
user228700
Ah. I don't think I caught that specification.
 
Then square with a diagonal
 
Does it have any connection with number of holes in 3d objects ?
 
user228700
7:27 AM
@BalarkaSen Thanks, I was about to ask exactly how the square has two faces :-P
 
I read it somewhere that chi is somehow connected to twice the number of holes in a solid body.
 
@Kaumudi.H Heh. The thing is I was thinking of the compact case; you can consider the exterior of the square to be another face.
It doesn't matter.
 
user228700
The exterior, erm, OK.
 
Anonymous
I had seen a physicsy proof of that stuff once (using electrical charges and induction)...forgot it though
 
@Kaumudi.H That idea will be important, but later. You should compute some examples just of the fun of it
 
7:29 AM
Yeah there's a proof on the book Mathematical Mehcnaic by Mark levi
 
It's one of the most interesting observations in mathematics, gateway to topology
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen It does seem remarkable that this general statement would apply to all cases under the given condition.
 
@Kaumudi.H Let me explain in a few words why it should be true.
 
user228700
Wokay.
 
Here's a thing. It's better to think about polyhedron than planar graphs at this point. Eg, tetrahedrons, octahedrons, etc
You can similarly easily define $\chi$ for polyhedrons, right?
 
user228700
7:32 AM
Yep.
 
Can you compute the $\chi$ of a tetrahedron for me?
 
user228700
Oh, dang, sorry about that.
 
user228700
Right, that would be 2, no?
 
Yup.
A cube?
 
user228700
2 again.
 
7:35 AM
So, fact: Any convex polyhedron has $\chi = 2$
 
user228700
Right...
 
The reason for this is this following buzzphrase: "Any two convex polyhedrons are topologically equivalent"
What this means is nothing fancy
Take a cube, inflate it by pumping air inside. What do you get after full inflation? A sphere, right?
 
user228700
Ah, right, you can change one to the other without cutting etc., right?
 
Right, right, exactly.
 
@BalarkaSen But your "pumping" proof works for concave polyhedral without holes too, right ?
 
7:37 AM
Any convex polyhedron is "homeomorphic" to the 2 dimensional sphere.
@AlexKChen Nah.
Think about a polyhedron with one vertex lying on the center of a face.
 
Okay, what happens when you pump up a "cashew" ? It looks like a ball, right ?
 
Anonymous
 
@AlexKChen Not if the cashew has two sides of it touching each other.
 
Anonymous
Ah, found it :)
 
It'll inflate up to wedge of two spheres. It's a little complicated.
@Kaumud.H So the point is $\chi$ is a topological invariant.
It doesn't care about the shape of the polyhedron, only the topology of it.
 
user228700
7:39 AM
Right.
 
user228700
According to the host, so are Betti numbers, yes? The number of holes...but that bit went completely over my head.
 
The $v$, $e$ and $f$ are Betti numbers indeed.
Let me explain the holes business real quick.
Take the following picture
 
user228700
Wait, they are Betti numbers?! Wtf.
 
@Kaumudi.H Mhm :) It's really very simple
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen OK.
 
7:41 AM
Ok, once you have that picture, can you compute $v$, $e$ and $f$ for me? It's a little convoluted because of so many vertices and edges but you can do it
 
user228700
OK, hang on...
 
user228700
Is v=30 even remotely correct?
 
I think $v$ is $24$.
Like, there are 6 vertices on the top
6 on the bottom
6 on the two sides
 
user228700
Ah, I counted the middle one twice.
 
so 6x4 = 24, right?
 
user228700
7:44 AM
Sorry.
 
Yup
It's okay
I can only count upto 10
 
user228700
Right, so e now. Hang on...
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Lol.
 
user228700
Is it 48? ::Winces::
 
Ah, yes.
 
user228700
7:47 AM
Oh, thank God.
 
What's $f$? :)
 
user228700
On that...
 
user228700
I'mma say 30 but I can almost guarantee that it must be wrong; I dunno how to count faces in this context.
 
Alright, think about each of those colored trapeziums
 
user228700
Hmm...
 
7:50 AM
On the top front band there are 6 of them, right?
Bottom front, another 6
 
user228700
Yeah.
 
Similar on the other side we can't see
 
user228700
Right.
 
So a total of 4*6 = 24 faces
That makes $\chi = 24 + 48 - 24 = 0$
 
user228700
7:51 AM
I seem to have counted another 6 at the bottom :-/
 
heh
It's ok
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Right.
 
Hard to see these things without interactive objects
@Kaumudi.H The disparity is easy to explain. If you inflate this polyhedron, you don't get a sphere.
You get a donut. Or, as a mathematician calls it, a torus.
 
user228700
Ah, I see.
 
The torus and the sphere are NOT topologically equivalent
So $\chi$ are immediately different
 
user228700
7:53 AM
I geddit.
 
Indeed, if you come up with polyedrons which inflate to the double torus, which looks like this:
Then you'd get $\chi = -2$
I won't give an example though, that'd be messy to compute :)
But yeah, so that means $\chi$ actually is intimately related to the number of "donut-holes" on the surface after inflating the polyhedron up.
 
user228700
Ah, see, I couldn't compute $\chi$ for that object if you couldn't "deflate" to a polyhedron.
 
Right, not with our definition so far.
What is remarkable is that it doesn't matter what polyhedron you deflate back to (Eg both cube and tetrahedron are deflated spheres, but their $\chi$ is the same) :)
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Uhh, OK...
 
hi, peeps :-)
 
user228700
7:56 AM
@BalarkaSen Right, of course, yes :-)
 
user228700
@skullpatrol Hey, man.
 
@Kaumudi.H You could consider surfaces of higher and higher genus
"genus" means "number of donut-holes"
the above surface has genus 3
Torus has genus 1, the double torus above has genus 2
 
user228700
Donut holes, nice, OK...
 
Fact: For a polyhedron, $\chi = 2 - 2g$ if the polyhedron, after inflation, takes the shape of a genus $g$ surface.
(Agrees with our observation; if $g = 0$ (it's a sphere! There are no donut-holes), $\chi = 2$, if $g = 1$, $\chi = 0$)
 
user228700
Ah, wow, nice.
 
7:59 AM
@BalarkaSen LOL did you every seen a donut cashew ? I speak for normal holeless cashews, the proof holds, right ?
 
what happens to the Klein donut?
 
@AlexKChen If you merely have a polyhedron with a small concavity, then it works, sure. If the opposite side touches with a vertex, it stops working, was my point.
I wasn't really giving a proof anyway, this is an informal explanation sort of
@skullpatrol Nonorientable surfaces are too badass to fit within the margin of this chat
@Kaumudi.H Well, so there you go. That's the end of the teaser trailer.
 
Please continue
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen ::Claps:: Thanks so much :-) It did give me a better sense and helped me to understand some concepts I couldn't grok when the host rushed through them.
 
These are beautiful swaths of mathematics that can be explained through pictures, I love it
You can actually find a connection with electric circuits and whatnot as @Blue was saying I think
 
user228700
8:04 AM
:-) Clearly. It is quite remarkable.
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen Yes, I will absolutely, 100% look it up.
 
After all electrical circuits are graphs; basically homology can be explained using Kirchhoff's laws
There's a John Baez post about this
But that's a story for another day. Ask for more later :P
 
user228700
@BalarkaSen :-P Will do.
 
I haven't slept all night so I'm going to get a nap now lol
seeya
 
Cya pal
 
user228700
8:06 AM
@BalarkaSen Wtf.
 
user228700
Have a good one :-) Bye!
 
thinks he solved the question
 
Anonymous
8:25 AM
@JohnRennie Do free electrons in a lattice have only one energy eigenvalue? I think so...but just wanted to ensure... The expression comes to be $E=\frac{\hbar^2k^2}{2m}$ I think
 
Anonymous
"A particle constrained to a finite interval has quantized energy. A "free particle", that can move any where in space, has continuous energy. Mathematically, that is because the eigenvalues on a finite interval (where you can use a Fourier series) are discrete while the eigenvalues on an infinite interval (where you can use a Fourier integral) are continuous.

Reference https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/energy-of-free-particle-not-quantized.597934/"
 
Anonymous
Okay...I think I got something:
 
8:51 AM
@0ßelö7 https://i.imgur.com/L4s0G1i.png - I think (?) I solved it. The idea is the vector $V$ is related between the $e_{(\mu)}$ (signature $(p,n-p)$) and $f_{(\nu)}$ (signature $(q,n-q)$) bases by a matrix equation, and so if I let $V^{q+1}=\dotsb =V^{n}=0$ in the $f_{(\nu)}$ basis and assume $q>p$ then there is nonzero $V^1,\dotsc ,V^q$ in $f_{(\nu)}$ basis such that $V^{1}=\dotsb =V^{p}=0$ in the $e_{(\mu)}$ basis. (there are $q>p$ variables for $p$ equations).

Now if I take $V$ as above and consider $g_{\alpha\beta}V^\alpha V^\beta$ which is the same in either basis, then for the nonez
I think the idea of the solution is fine (it's just linear algebra), but is that notation fine? I wasn't sure a better way to write it than constantly noting what basis I was writing the vectors in
 
9:14 AM
@Blue free electrons in a lattice is an oxymoron. Assuming you mean Bloch states then each state has a well defined energy.
 
electrons free to roam around in the lattice?
 
9:29 AM
Ha! Finally I got to an easy book ID question first! Usually one of the full time SFFSE geeks beats me to it :-)
 
nice work
+1
 
Anonymous
@JohnRennie A lattice for which $V_0=0$. :P Anyhow...forget the term lattice. Free electrons aren't quantized. Right?
 
@Blue Correct.
The free particle energy eigenstates have a continuous range of energies.
Quantised energy levels are generally the result of a confining potential.
 
Anonymous
9:46 AM
I think that may be a reason for why we take $\alpha=k$ here: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/356582/…?
 
Anonymous
0
Q: Are some steps wrong in this derivation (Kronig Penney Model)?

BlueHere, Wikipedia has the derivation for the equation: $$\cos(ka)=\cos(\alpha a) + P \frac{\sin(\alpha a)}{\alpha a}$$ I didn't understand one of the steps: $\beta^2-\alpha^2$ should be equal to $\frac{2m(V_o-2|E|)}{\hbar^2}$ and not $\frac{2m(V_o)}{\hbar^2}$. I don't understand how they m...

 
Anonymous
Instead of $\alpha a = 2n\pi \pm k a$
 
Anonymous
Not very sure though
 
What are you trying to do? :P
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind I'm trying to copy Adam's comment here. It's not working
 
Anonymous
9:49 AM
<https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/356582/are-some-steps-wrong-in-this‌​-derivation-kronig-penney-model?#comment798150_356582>
 
You have to click on the comment's timestamp, then copy the link.
 
Anonymous
physics.stackexchange.com/questions/356582/…‌‌​​-derivation-kronig-penney-model#comment798150_356582
 
Anonymous
0
Q: Are some steps wrong in this derivation (Kronig Penney Model)?

BlueHere, Wikipedia has the derivation for the equation: $$\cos(ka)=\cos(\alpha a) + P \frac{\sin(\alpha a)}{\alpha a}$$ I didn't understand one of the steps: $\beta^2-\alpha^2$ should be equal to $\frac{2m(V_o-2|E|)}{\hbar^2}$ and not $\frac{2m(V_o)}{\hbar^2}$. I don't understand how they m...

 
Anonymous
Damn...again
 
Anonymous
I did click on the timestamp and paste the link
 
9:50 AM
@Blue try this: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/356582/are-some-steps-wrong-in-this‌​-derivation-kronig-penney-model#comment798150_356582.
 
Anonymous
Okay...pasting that:
 
For the first question : $E$ is finite, even in the limit $=V_0\to\infty$, so it can be neglected. For the second question : we are interested in the lowest energy state, which is the one with $n=0$. — Adam 15 mins ago
 
Anonymous
physics.stackexchange.com/questions/356582/…‌‌​​-derivation-kronig-penney-model#comment798150_356582
 
For the first question : $E$ is finite, even in the limit $=V_0\to\infty$, so it can be neglected. For the second question : we are interested in the lowest energy state, which is the one with $n=0$. — Adam 15 mins ago
Look it works ^
 
9:51 AM
@Blue Are you posting from mobile or from a desktop?
 
Anonymous
See what happened when I pasted what Mr Xcoder wrote ^ :P
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Laptop
 
Anonymous
Something is wrong with Chrome
 
@Blue Oh... Try adding https:// in front
 
For the first question : $E$ is finite, even in the limit $=V_0\to\infty$, so it can be neglected. For the second question : we are interested in the lowest energy state, which is the one with $n=0$. — Adam 17 mins ago
 
9:52 AM
@Mr.Xcoder There is a https in front in what he posted
 
It works here ...
 
@ACuriousMind :o I'm blind
 
Anonymous
@Mr.Xcoder I did.
 
Anonymous
:P
 
@Mr.Xcoder The chat just automatically removes that when it linkifies the, well, link. You can't see it.
 
9:53 AM
@ACuriousMind I tried looking at the history of the message to see its source, but @Blue didn't edit it, unfortunately
And that message now appears 100 times....
 
lol
 
Is it just me or all the chat icons are misaligned?
 
just you
 
Anonymous
I think there was some problem as the comment was an edited one.
 
Anonymous
10:02 AM

Sandbox

Where you can play with chat features (except flagging) and ch...
 
Anonymous
Now it seems to work fine
 
10:28 AM
Allow me to introduce:
 
@Mr.Xcoder LOL I thought you added that UFO inside.
 
@Jasper Hehe
 
@0ßelö7 Learning French would be a good investment. If you do math in grad school in the US, usually they require reading knowledge of French, German, or Russian.
 
Anonymous
10:49 AM
 
@0ßelö7 morning :3
 
11:32 AM
Where is it that people have electrical sockets in bathrooms? I’d never have noticed this as none of my bathrooms have electrical outlets! — Tim 2 hours ago
@Tim - so you plug your washer, hair dryer etc. into... what? I bet my ass that this is gonna be another American "ban Kinder Surprise because it's too dangerous" thing. — Davor 2 hours ago
 
Anonymous
@lılostafa I believe most Eastern countries don't have sockets in bathrooms as they are wet bathrooms unlike the Western countries which have dry bathrooms (or rather the dry and wet zones are separate).
 
Anonymous
In our house we have a room just outside of the actual bathroom where we plug in washer, hair dryer, etc. That's commonly called the dressing room.
 
@Blue If you read the comment thread you'll see that Tim lives in the UK and they apparently don't have sockets in bathrooms.
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Ah. Interesting. I didn't know that about UK. My impression was that mostly the Asian countries have wet bathrooms. Sockets are not installed to prevent electric shocks and stuff
 
this GR homework is giving me math major PTSD from when I took some math master's courses
 
11:45 AM
In any case, I purged the comments because they didn't have anything to do with the question itself :P
 
@GPhys ?
 
@0ßelö7 I think I solved one of them (above)
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind lol....you spoilsport mod :P
 
Morning. My phone does this thing where it logs me on when I'm afk
 
and I think I just figured out why/how to solve one, but it doesn't seem to be the way the hint is suggesting
I summarized my solution for the sylvester one above :3
 
11:49 AM
@Blue Shouldn't have posted here....the question was hot and receiveing a lot of cross-SE views, and we probably could have a nice extensive discussion on this in the comments
 
I don't like my notation on it though. I guess even now I wrote it in a way that implies the eigenvalues of the metric are actually +-1, but they don't need to be
I'm not sure what the best way to write e.g. $V^1V_1$ is in a way that includes the metric, but not the full summation
$g_{11}V^1V^1$ I guess?
 
@JohnRennie at least we don't go to school anymore. this is what I say to myself these days, when I feel stuck with many problems.
 
@lılostafa I regularly check the highly commented posts, anyway, so you'd only have delayed the inevitable
 
Anonymous
 
Anonymous
I'm a bit confused....what would the area under the curve of F-D stand for?
 
12:00 PM
@Blue Why do you think it stands for anything?
 
Usually the integral of a distribution means something @ACuriousMind
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind I was thinking of an analogy with M-B distribution where $N=\int f(v)dv$ ($N$ is the number of molecules in a gas)
 
Anonymous
I thought the integral might actually stand for something
 
@GPhys I guess. I'd have to see the full proof to know what you mean for sure
 
@0ßelö7 did you see it above, or want more?
 
12:05 PM
@Blue Well, that depends on how you normalize it. "The" Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is usually your $f$ normalized by $N$, so that $f(v)/N$ is the probability density that any given particle has velocity $v$.
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Umm, without normalization the $f(v)$ just means the number of gas molecules with a certain velocity, right? Similarly, $f(E)$ should mean the number of electrons with a certain energy $E$. If I normalize it by (suppose) total number of electrons, then the area under the curve should give me the total number of electrons, right? Otherwise it doesn't mean anything. I think I get it...
 
@Blue It doesn't mean the "number of electrons" in your picture, though. The graph axis is clearly labeled "probability of occupation", not "average occupation number".
(which makes sense since fermions can actually occupy a state more than once due to Pauli)
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Well, so what does probability of occupation mean ? I suppose it is just means (average occupation number of a certain energy E by electrons)/(total number of electrons) ?
 
Anonymous
Maybe they even took the spin factor of 2 into account
 
@Blue That's one way to say it, but since you won't find more than one electron in any state to begin with, that's kinda a misleading way to think about it. Just think of it as the probability that if you look at any state with energy $E$, then that function gives the probability there's an electron in it.
The Fermi-Dirac distribution is for one state per energy $E$ - if you have more than one state with the same energy, you need to know the degeneracy $g(E)$, also known as "density of states".
That is, to answer your original question, the F-D distribution is just a probability distribution and hence the area under it will always be 1, if you deal with the units properly.
To get the total number of electrons you need the additional information $g(E)$.
 
Anonymous
12:18 PM
@ACuriousMind Aha...that makes it clear! I was confused about where they are adjusting for the spin (i.e. the factor of 2). The density of states takes opposite spin of electrons in the $E-k$ space into account. Gotcha.
 
Anonymous
Thanks :D
 
@DavidZ Did you ever figure out what the issue here was?
 
@GPhys I did not see it and can't find it
I won't be at a computer until this afternoon though
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind One more question. I'm not sure which units to use so that the area under the F-D distribution comes out to be $1$. Neither $J$ not $eV$ seems to work. (In the FD graph I posted above) Is that graph wrong or I am missing something?
 
Anonymous
12:23 PM
With eV as unit the area is $5$
 
@Blue You need to recognize that the probability density is not unitless
But it may well be that the graph is wrong :P
Yeah, it's wrong, and you're right with the 5 :P
 
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind Umm, what's the unit for probability density?
 
Someone drew this not thinking about it having to be a normalized density
 
Anonymous
I'm not sure how probability can have unit
 
@Blue Probability doesn't have a unit. And that's the clue you need to see that probability densities must have units.
 
Anonymous
12:40 PM
6
A: What does the value of a probability density function (PDF) at some x indicate?

Alex'Relative likelihood' is indeed misleading. Look at it as a limit instead: $$ f(x)=\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h} $$ where $F(x) = P(X \leq x)$

 
Anonymous
This clears the confusion!
 
@Blue don't you mean the doubt
;)
 
@0ßelö7 by $\mathbf{g}(V,e_{(1)})$ did he just mean the 1 component of $V$ in the e reference frame?
that was the only reasonable interpretation I could come up with
 
12:56 PM
No, he means the inner product with V and e_1
 
then my solution is wrong, but I'm sure the idea must be correct
@0ßelö7 I was thinking about some V and writing it in the base e and f
 
If the basis is orthonormal then it's the component up to a sign
 

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