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4:00 AM
But my brain ain't working right now :(
What makes me curious, actually, is that Pell's equation is $x^2-ny^2=1$ for $n$ a positive square-free integer
 
yeah ok :)
 
4:26 AM
If $f : \Bbb{R} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}$ is bijective then what can we say about $f^{-1}$
is that too bijective?
and if $f$ is differentiable then is $f^{-1}$ differentiable in thatccase?
 
if you're asking if the inverse of a bijection is also a bijection, you should probably make sure you know what "bijection" means. the answer to your second question is no (for example f(x)=x^3 around x=0).
 
yes inverse of a bijection is bijection :)
Like I am interested in exploring the second part
 
Well, what's the formula for $(f^{-1})'(x)$?
 
That formula holds iff $f$ is continuously differentiable.
 
if I said it differentiable that implied continuous ?
 
4:41 AM
"continuously differentiable" $\neq$ "continuous and differentiable"
 
oh
 
Continuously differentiable is when the derivative is continuous
 
nice
 
I think $x|x|$ would be an example of that distinction.
(it's continuous and differentiable, but that derivative isn't continuous)
 
to give inverse of function in desmos?
f-1
?
 
4:44 AM
no idea.
 
@Daminark Did you give that lecture?
 
Mar 12 '15 at 2:16, by David Wheeler
The space $\Bbb R^{\Bbb R}$ is ridiculously big. There are functions out there NO ONE HAS EVER SEEN
 
That's true ^
 
The notebook entry of this investigation is back in February
Steamy and I did managed to try to calculate its cardinality, which I don rmb on top of my head before we fall back to integrable functions
 
I'm giving it tomorrow
 
4:48 AM
Ah ok
 
I wonder, if the busy beaver lives there...
 
Unit sphere in $\Bbb{R}^2$ is circle
 
I do have some lecture notes written up, I can send them if you'd like
 
= $S^1$
 
It's very technical, like most of the work was understanding the notation
 
4:49 AM
oh
demona
 
But it's pretty dank
 
your summer school
how is it going?
 
@Daminark I'd like the notes
It's funny, how you feel now was how I felt when I was first learning foliations
I suppose anything dynamical requires a lot of symbolical flexibility to rigorously state
 
Sorry I uploaded it in 3 separate pictures, but it seems like this chat can't upload files
 
Got'em. Is that it?
 
4:51 AM
@Baymax it's going really well, how's everything with you?
Yeah, I write rather tersely
 
yeah it is fine thanks for asking :)
 
Thanks a lot.
 
If there's something you'd want to clarify, let me know
The general flow of this is basically that the first few theorems are basically trying to establish this recurrence property of homeomorphisms on compact spaces
So then what you do is translate a finite partition of $\mathbb{Z}$ into a sequence in a two-sided sequence space on some finite alphabet
That space is $\{1,\ldots,m\}^{\mathbb{Z}}$, which is compact, and then the left shift on it becomes a homeomorphism
(Since it's two sided)
So then you show that a recurrence of this becomes an arithmetic progression
 
Ah, alright
That's an interesting proof-technique
 
Second theorem on affine spaces required you to invoke IP-systems directly and rehash the results in a specific context, since merely recurrence can't handle this. That's the proof where what I wrote down on here did not reflect what I wrote on the board to understand it, so if it's tricky to read, do tell
Yeah I like it, it's pretty slick
 
4:58 AM
Ok, I'm reading the first page now
what does "IP" stand for? :P
 
[To be investigated after all function spaces] $\Bbb{R}^{\Bbb{R}^{\Bbb{R}}}$
 
So, I think IP sets are a thing to describe sets of finite sums of some infinite set of natural numbers
 
$\mathbb{R}\uparrow\mathbb{R}$
(no, i don't know what that would actually mean)
 
I'm p sure this has to do with that, that name is of disputed origin, either idempotent (since such sets have to do with idempotent ultrafilters) or infinite-dimensional parallelepiped
 
huh
 
5:01 AM
though I guess the better starting point would be $\mathbb{R}\uparrow\mathbb{N}$
 
I guess I'll stop being a Irritating Pedant and move on to actual math :P
 
(i'm talking nonsense)
 
Kek @Balarka
 
(should probably be two uparrows, lol
 
One up arrow is exponentiation, thus that is the same as $\Bbb{R}^{\Bbb{R}}$. You might mean $\Bbb{R}\uparrow^{\mathfrak{c}}\Bbb{R}$. I have no idea, I need to check whether cardinal hyperoperations make sense first. But likely we don need to go to such vast space
 
5:04 AM
Well, $\mathbb{R}\uparrow\uparrow 3$ should be R^R^R
 
Indeed, 2 uparrows is tetration . The space of all set valued functions might live there
 
@Daminark I am not sure if I understand the order. So I can say $\{1, 2\} < \{3, 4\}$, but nothing about $\{2, 3, 4\}$ and $\{1, 7, 8\}$?
 
Yeah, it's only a partial ordering
 
Got it.
 
and set valued function might be related to second order logic
NB I don't know whether uncountable order logic make sense, but countable order logic can be as the sup of nth order logic. Likely only n cat people will need to deal with that
Mar 12 '15 at 2:53, by David Wheeler
So: $$\int 2^x\ dx = \int e^{\ln(2)x} = \dfrac{1}{\ln(2)}\int \ln(2)e^{\ln(2)x}\ dx = \dfrac{1}{\ln(2)}\int (e^{\ln(2)x})'\ dx = $$?
I wanna put a lambert W in the 3rd step
 
5:18 AM
you'd need another x.
 
Oops, yeah
Hmm... $\int \frac{x(\ln 2)e^{x\ln 2}}{x}dx=\int (e^{x\ln2})'dx=\int \frac{W(?)}{x}dx$
 
nah. remember, it's $W(x)e^{W(x)}=x$.
So you'd want to substitute $x=W(u)/(\ln 2)$.
 
@Semiclassical I was thinking more of the fact that if a and b are the results of norms of that integers then ab is also a norm
there's a corollary which gives factoring, but I have yet to prove it for all quadratic rings. i need to get around to doing that.
 
5:34 AM
$\int \frac{\ln 2}{(1+W(u))}du$ hmm, it gets a nontrivial look, interesting
 
that smbc is actually a little scary
 
I knew the sugar coated lie of growing up since child (unlike most of my peers) but whether getting a career with a degree (insert suitable sentence) is a lie, not yet
Regardless, my dream job is research, so that's should be ok I guess...
 
5:52 AM
@Daminark Oh, by the way, did you mean the big union = X in lemma 1?
 
@AkivaWeinberger @SimplyBeautifulArt @Semiclassical @Secret @BalarkaSen here is a riddle for you all to ponder over. I know you all liked the last number theory question I made. Might interest you all. math.stackexchange.com/questions/2355747/…
and im heading out
so goodnight ya'll
@AkivaWeinberger fyi the factoring thing won't work here as directly as not all of them are unique factoring sets.
you'd have to build the necessary proofs up first. Also, no special cheat sheet for this one. This was basically the tail end of the project I did in the class. I examined the integers of the rational sets in correlation with the euclidean domains.
so... there's no proofs for this one. Have to prove from scratch.
 
6:10 AM
12 hours ago, by Akiva Weinberger
I think it's provable you can't define $\Bbb R$ in $\Bbb C$ with just the language of fields
Can we prove this?
 
How to write the condition of completeness in symbols, perhaps there's a symbol that is not used in the language of fields? Also reals need total order which the complex don't have (they only have a partial order)
 
i need to find out what modular forms are later. They still give me an impression that they are floating donuts in space
 
@Secret one idea I have is that we can prove that every formula that defines $\Bbb R$ must also define _
but it doesn't work
because I only know that every formula that defines a set of number must also define their conjugates
I could say $\Bbb R$ is the numbers unchanged under conjugate, but I can't define conjugate in that language
 
6:38 AM
@Balarka whoops, yeah
@Leaky I don't know algebra and thus am not sure if this would work
 
@Daminark well, I don't seem to make it work
 
But I think $\mathbb{C}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}[t]/\langle x^2 + 1\rangle$
 
@Secret and the results turned out to be fine, if you care enough
@Daminark hmm...
$x \mapsto i$ seems to be ok
I agree with your thought
and I can define $\{i,-i\}$ in the language by $x^2+1=0$
but I can never separate $i$ from $-i$
 
I mean, is there a canonical identification of the two?
 
-i is additive inverse of I, thus the existence of negative elements should uniquely define -i?
 
6:44 AM
Like, I thought it was just that you get two things, and you choose one of them to be $i$
 
-i also have the property of being the reciprocal of i
 
Can somebody give me a hint on this question:
Explain why for $18 \leq n \leq 400$, $n \neq 361$, that $n$ is prime iff $n$ does not have proper factors 2 or 5 and GCD(n, 51051) = 1
 
That is, i has a negative which coincides with its multiplicative inverse
 
Hey everyone
 
I think its saying n is prime so long as it is not divisible by 2, 3 or 5 between 18 - 400
Am I on the right track?
 
6:48 AM
@Daminark what does canonical mean?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I think he means natural
 
@Secret no it doesn't
any formula that $i$ satisfies, $-i$ also satisfies
@Kane 51051 = 3x7x11x13x17
 
@LeakyNun ahhh
 
What about their minimal polynomials, it is always unique for each algebraic number?
 
so n is prime if it doesnt have factors 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17
 
6:53 AM
@Kane yes
 
and they are all the primes up to 20
 
you forgot 19
 
oh crap
 
which is why it says "except 361"
because 361 = 19 x 19
 
@LeakyNun thanks for your help
 
6:54 AM
@Secret of course it is unique; that is what minimal means
@Kane no problem
 
Wait, then we might be able to use the minimal polynomials to separate out i and -i, unless x is not in the language of fields
 
@LeakyNun No, "minimal" need not imply unique
 
@Secret you can't
@TobiasKildetoft you're right
 
Hmm, you can map $X$ to $i$ and $1$ to $1$ to get an isomorphism @Daminark
 
18 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
$x \mapsto i$ seems to be ok
 
7:00 AM
O great, so we cannot uniquely specify each algebraic number. I thought they are all computable...
 
@Secret a minimal polynomial of an algebraic number must also be satisfied by its conjugate(s)
if $2+\sqrt3$ satisfies a polynomial, so must $2-\sqrt3$
 
Oh, I missed it
 
@AlessandroCodenotti do you have any ideas?
 
What's the question exactly?
 
59 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
12 hours ago, by Akiva Weinberger
I think it's provable you can't define $\Bbb R$ in $\Bbb C$ with just the language of fields
Can we prove this?
"the language of fields" include the first-order logic symbols and $0$, $1$, $+$, $\times$, and $=$.
 
7:11 AM
@TobiasKildetoft isn't it unique if you work in a decent extension of a field and ask for minimal polynomials to be monic?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti yes but it isn't what "minimal" means
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I objected to the claim that the term minimal itself implied unique
 
@LeakyNun Not by trying to define it
 
@AlessandroCodenotti surely, but how can we prove that we can't actually define it?
 
Minimal was defined as the monic generator of the kernel of a morphism in the abstract algebra course I took
 
7:13 AM
Oh define $\mathbb{R}$ in $\mathbb{C}$
Seems like I can't read
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Minimal means the same in all contexts, it just depends on the choice of a partial order (or occasionally preorder)
@LeakyNun Good question. The only thing a quick search turned up is the comments on math.stackexchange.com/questions/1402011/… stating that we can't
But it does not give any indication of why
 
@LeakyNun Using what you said, then the minimal and monic polynomial of $\pm i$ is both $x^2+1=0$?
 
I guess my partial order is by grade first and then ordering the leading coefficents by divisibility amonh those with the same grade
 
> A subset $H$ of $S$ is minimal with respect to the property if $H$ has the property, and no subset $K \subset H$, $K \ne H$, has the property. If $H$ has the property and $H \subset K$ for every subset $K$ with the property, then $H$ is the smallest subset with the property. There may be many minimal subsets, but there can be only one smallest subset.
@AlessandroCodenotti this is what "minimal" means to me
P.53, A First Course In Abstract Algebra, John B. Fraleigh
Seventh Edition
2003, so quite outdated
 
@LeakyNun Yeah, that is with the partial order given by inclusion
 
7:17 AM
the order would be the degree here, I think
@Secret yes
 
Great that means... what I said yesterday is all wrong...
 
@Secret what did you say yesterday?
 
16 hours ago, by Secret
I think one for each algebraic number is enough, since every algebraic number can be uniquely defined by its minimal polynomial
It also means user107952's conjecture is still unresolved
17 hours ago, by user107952
My conjecture is that every algebraic number except 0 needs a single identity besides commutativity, associativity, and distributivity of addition and multiplication, and 0 itself needs 2 identities, namely $(x*0)=0$ and $(x+0)=x$
because if you cannot separate an algebraic number from its conjugate, then you cannot have an identity (in the context of universal algebra) to define $r$
 
I don't actually understand what "identity" means there
 
It's pretty much what we called an axiom which takes the form of an equation
 
7:21 AM
Could you demonstrate using an example?
 
Always helps^
 
Rings have $+$,$*$,$0$,$1$,$-$,${}^{-1}$, and the ring axioms. Thus $\langle+,*,0,1,^{-1},->\rangle$ is the signature of rings. The ring axioms are called identities in the context of universal algebra since those are the sentences you need to establish your structure has the required signature
e.g. x+0=x is an identity of rings. 0 is called a constant (because it is not an arbitrary element taken from an underlying set
 
@Secret Can you demonstrate using an example of an algebraic number?
 
7:26 AM
Well, say we have $i,-i$. It's minimal polynomial is $x^2+1$, thus to define $\pm i$ we use the identity $x^2+1=0$
or for a simpler example, $\sqrt{2}$, we define it by using the polynomial $x^2-2=0$
These are identities in order to define the above three algebraic numbers in your ring
In particular, $\sqrt{2}$ is uniquely defined by the identity $x^2-2=0$
uh wait a sec, $\pm \sqrt{2}$, forgot about unique, but yeah, $\pm \sqrt{2}$ can be distinguished from $\pm i$ by those identities
 
@Secret $x=\sqrt2 \equiv (x\times x = 1 + 1 \land \exists r: r \times r = x)$
if the model is $\Bbb R$
 
uh, that's more like a definition for $r={}^4\sqrt{2}$, but the point is, can we always do that for all real algebraic numbers, if yes, then user107952's conjecture may still hold (We already have shown above that it does not work for at least one pair of complex number, $\pm i$
 
@Secret no, that's a definition for $x = \sqrt2$
 
but what's the point of the line $r\times r = x$? why not $r\times r\times r = x$ or other possible things?
 
@Secret because that is the way to distinguish the positive elements
 
7:37 AM
ah ok, right, since $r\times r \geq 0, \forall r \in \Bbb{R}$
so that means, we can pick $x=-\sqrt{2}$ by using $-(r\times r)=x$
 
@Secret you don't have $-$ in your language
 
that's easy to fix: $x+r\times r = 0$
 
yes
 
ok so user107952's conjecture should be fine
Now I think I see what's going on, the reason why the uniqueness of specifying each algerbraic number by its monic minimal polynomial in complex fails is we lost the identity(?) $r\times r \geq 0$
since $i^2=-1<0$, which screws up total ordering
 
yes
 
7:44 AM
hmm, now that makes me curious, if we cannot define $\Bbb{R}$ in $\Bbb{C}$ using the language of fields because we cannot distinguish between complex conjugates, then what extra letter(s) do we need to add into the language in order to be able to do so...?
 
@Secret adding a constant for $i$ works
or one for complex conjugate
 
@TobiasKildetoft I don't think it does
@TobiasKildetoft this would work though
 
@LeakyNun Either of those will give the other
 
@TobiasKildetoft how will $i$ work?
 
@LeakyNun You mean for specifying the reals inside the complex numbers?
 
7:49 AM
@TobiasKildetoft yes
 
I thought i is already inside the complex numbers, uh..., maybe it is not present in the language of fields. I think I don't really understand what is meant to be a constant for i
 
I don't think defining $i$ would work @TobiasKildetoft
@Secret adding $i$ to our language
 
ah ok
6 mins ago, by Tobias Kildetoft
or one for complex conjugate
The identity $1=\bar{1}$?
 
@LeakyNun Somehow I thought we could get complex conjugation from i as a constant, but I think you are right that it will not suffice
 
@TobiasKildetoft because I can actually get $i$: $x^2+1=0$
(I know $-i$ would also satisfy, but it wouldn't matter)
@Secret no, the "conjugate" into our language
 
7:53 AM
@LeakyNun Well, the point of addint $i$ is to distinguish it from $-i$
 
if conjugate is in our language, then $x \in \Bbb R \equiv x = \bar{x}$ @Secret
@TobiasKildetoft no, $i$ and $-i$ won't matter if you can get conjugate from $i$.
if you can get conjugate from $i$, then so can you from $-i$, so it wouldn't matter
 
ah ok, I think I have a terrible misconception of thinking the language of complex numbers are $\{\text{1st order logic },+,-,*,{}^{-1},\bar{},0,1,i,\Bbb{C}\}$ and forget that the original question said I only have the language of fields
because the language of fields is only $\{\text{1st order logic },+,-,*,{}^{-1},\Bbb{F},0,1\}$
[Extended investigation, unrelated, to be done later] I wonder if the following is true in general: Given any commutative ring $R$ with units, is the following true:
(typo)
 
@Secret I would say it is false
 
> If R has a total ordering, then $\not\exists k$ unit such that $-k=k^{-1}$.
(because you can have a total ordering but no such elements exist) I think I swap the if and then again... grr
 
The integral equation $\phi(x) - \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}\cos(x+t)\phi(t)dt = cos(3x)$ has infinitely many solutions?
 
8:05 AM
@Secret replace it with its contrapositive
and I would suspect that it is true
 
Conjecture:
> If $\exists k$ unit such that $-k=k^{-1}$, then R does not have a total ordering.
 
@Secret I say it's true, just prove it
 
(Now to revise how a total ordering is defined. Pretty sure $k^2\geq 0$ does not seemed to suffice...)
$k\geq 0$ or $0 \geq k$

$k^2 \geq 0$ or $0 \geq k^2$

$-k < 0$

$(-k)k < 0$

$1 < 0$

(Now how to argue that 1 should be > 0... (sure, it is true for all inductive systems like peano arithmetic, but we are talking about very general commutative rings here, thus we might need to be careful...)
 
@Secret prove that $1 < 0 \implies 1 > 0$
 
8:28 AM
$1 < 0$

$-k=k^{-1}<0$

$-k<0 \implies k > 0$

$k(-k) > 0$

$1 > 0$ or $k^2(-1)>0$

$1 > 0$ or $k^2 < 0$

hmm... let me start it all over again...
 
@Secret you don't need $k$ here
 
uh, but without k, the conjecture only holds if $-1=1$?
 
@Secret I mean, you don't need $k$ for this step
this step being $1 < 0 \implies 1 > 0$
 
I don't know how to do that, cause in an arbitrary commutative ring, 1 is not necessary a successor of 0 as it is just the multiplicative and additive identity respectively and they are both subjected to a total ordering
 
@Secret $1 < 0$
$-1 > 0$
$(-1)(-1) > 0$
$1 > 0$
 
8:40 AM
Ah I see, flipping signs for the 2nd step
then contradiction, QED
 
@Secret you're essentially subtracting $1$ from both sides, instead of flipping signs
 
right, that's the step I miss, too focused on multiplying
I wonder what this proof look like in pictures... cause the fact that existence of units that are negatives can screw up total ordering should be pretty visible if we plot all the elements in the ring on some diagram...
If the intuition on complex number still holds, then I suspect it will look like some abstract rotation or cycles among some elements
 
9:03 AM
Prove that $(-1)^2=1$

Proof:
$(-1)+1=0$

$(-1)^2+(-1)=0$

$(-1)^2=-(-1)$

Prove that $-(-1)=1$
Proof:

$-(-1)+(-1)=0$
Uniqueness of additvie inverse

$-(-1)=1$

Hence

$(-1)^2=1$
 
@Secret Not sure what you mean by the intuition on complex numbers as those are not ordered.
 
well the observation that $i=1,i^2=-1,i^3,-i,i^4=1$, i.e. these 4 elements form a 4 element cycle around 0 just by multiplying i alone, which on the argand plane, look like a rotation
I always have the impression that multiplication rotates complex numbers around is why total ordering is screwed up in complex numbers
 
Why does a vertical line $x \times I$ is open in the ordered square?
it is not an intersection of a rectangle and $I_0 \ ^ 2 $
 
9:19 AM
what's the ordered square again? $[0,1]^2$ with the order topology induced by the lexicographic order?
 
i thought it is $[0,1] \ ^ 2$ as a subspace of $\Bbb R \ ^ 2 $
 
in that case I agree that a vertical line won't be closed, but I don't think that's the ordered square
 
Ordered square is indeed the one with lexicographic order, afaik.
 
Thanks, my mistake
@AlessandroCodenotti you meant open ? because it is closed if we think of it as a subspace of $\Bbb R \ ^ 2$
 
indeed, thanks for catching that
 
9:43 AM
$A_{1},A_{2},...,A_{m}$ are distinct $n \times n$ matrices such that $A_{i}A_{j} = 0$ for $i \neq j$ then relation between $m$ and $n$ is ?
 
$m\le n^2$
For a start
I think $m\le n(n-1)$
 
There is no upper bound actually @Astyx
 
Oh yeah, nonzero matrices
 
why would you think $m \leq n^2$
 
Just take multiples of any matrix that squares to zero
So there is no relation without further restrictions
 
9:46 AM
Cause $Tr(MN)$ is a scalar product in the space of matrices ?
 
you want nonzero and linear independent @Astyx (as vectors in $\Bbb R^{n^2}$)
 
You get linear independant from non zero and orthogonal don't you ?
 
@Astyx No, as there are matrices that square to zero
@Astyx Ohh, I missed orthogonal there
Which was not a requirement of @BAYMAX
 
Oh I see why I'm wrong
It's $Tr(M^TN)$, not $Tr(MN)$
Forget what I said
When $n=1$ then $m\le 2$
 
Ok, it's not a rotation, but an extra sign flip introduced:
Some elaboration: Let $-a=a^{-1}$. Then $a(-a)=1>0$ but $\forall c < a, c(-a)<0$
 
user84215
9:55 AM
In these chat rooms, can a post be removed by others?
 
thus there's a discontinuity in the behavior when a $ c< 0$ element is multiplied to a $ c > 0$ element that is an inverse of the target element in question, and the one that does not behave as expected screws up the total ordering
 
@aminliverpool I doubt so, perhaps by mods at worst
If it is possible, it's not common practice anyway AFAIK
 
user84215
10:13 AM
It seems that my last post in a room was removed. Can it be done by the owner of the room?
 
Unlikely, the owners of this room are so inactive that we have not seen them in the past few weeks
 
user84215
10:28 AM
I did not mean this room. It happened in other room.
 
@aminliverpool AFAIK moderators can delete messages. Room owners can move messages to another room. This is most frequently done to move messages to Trash.
Is this the message you are talking about: chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/38704973#38704973 ?
 
user84215
yes
 
You can even see in the room transcript: 1 message moved to trash
So, mystery solved. I'll have to go off-line, have a nice day!
 
I want to prove that every order topology is regular. I saw a proof online using the equivalent definition of regularity ($X$ is regular iff for each $x \in U $ there is $x \in V \subset \overline V \subset U$ ) and i proved it in another way so i want to know if im correct :

Let $x \in X $ and $A \subset X $ be closed set that does not contains $x$.
$\{x\}$ is close because it's complement is open.
now , $ x \in X - A$ , and $X - A$ is open so there is an interval $(a,b) $ s.t $x \in (a,b) \subset X - A$.
 
11:20 AM
Regarding the observation of $-k=k^{-1}$ I have a few ideas for relaxed structures:
1. We can generalise that discontinuity further by having an interval $I=[a,b]$ (or countably more elements if the underlying set is discrete) such that the typical rule $(+)(-)=(-)$ violates besides for the element $k$. This will likely not change much since the resulting structure is already not totally ordered. This choice has the advantage of being able to retain the commutative ring structure
2. We can also relax the ring into a semiring by demanding that 1 has no additive inverse. (In the absence of other pathways), this will nuke the proof that $(-1)^2=1$ completely and thus preventing the contradiction $1 < 0 \implies 0 < 1$ to be proven. One consequence is that the resulting structure will have a bizarre property where the multiplicative identity is less than the additive identity, unlike the typical cases, though it is likely it is not really as bizarre as it seems
 
11:40 AM
[Is an exercise until I typed it up] However, a bypass that invalidates proposal 1 exists if there are idemponents. Guess what they are
 
@LeakyNun There's only countable many sets we could possibly define total, right? Because there are countable many formulas
So like if you define "$x$ is almost definable" to mean "$x$ is contained in a finite definable set" (that way $i$ is almost definable 'cause it's in $\{i,-i\}$ which is finite and definable)
then there's only countably many almost definable things
Is this smaller set "equivalent" to $\Bbb C$ in some way? My intuition says "yes" but I don't know how to prove it
I suppose it's possible that there exists an infinite definable set with no finite definable subset, which breaks this probably
Actually, you know what, conjecture: a definable set is either $\Bbb C$ or finite.
 
11:56 AM
^ Some observations: Not all transcendentals are computable as it is uncountable while computable things must be at most countably infinite since we have a finite alphabet
 
Oh that conjecture's false, you could also get the complement of a finite set to be definable
$\Bbb C\setminus\{i,-i\}$ is definable
 
that's the set where all conjugates are identified pairwise?
 
$\setminus$, not $/$ @Secret
 
oops
 
It's the set of everything that's not equal to $i$ or $-i$
$\lnot(x^2+1=0)$
I suppose that it's true for quantifier-free formulas. I don't know how to deal with quantifiers, though
 
12:02 PM
btw, your more general idea can be analysed with the constructible universe, I guess...
In mathematics, in set theory, the constructible universe (or Gödel's constructible universe), denoted L, is a particular class of sets that can be described entirely in terms of simpler sets. It was introduced by Kurt Gödel in his 1938 paper "The Consistency of the Axiom of Choice and of the Generalized Continuum-Hypothesis". In this, he proved that the constructible universe is an inner model of ZF set theory, and also that the axiom of choice and the generalized continuum hypothesis are true in the constructible universe. This shows that both propositions are consistent with the basic axioms...
 
But the constructible universe need not be equivalent to the original model
The original model might satisfy the negation of the axiom of choice $\lnot AC$ but I think the constructible universe always satisfies $AC$
 
good morning frands
 
Hi frand
 
Gwudmornurnlg
Gukmairns
 
Ah yes, $L$ is a model of AFC, thus there is axiom of choice in it
 
12:06 PM
Hm.
 
'frand' is what some of the jerk guys here use to pick up women
 
[Unrelated] An example of a bypass (More on this later once I set up the chat room known as the Repository of Unnatural Algebraic Structures)
(Some Proposed definitions) Let $S$ be a structure that consists of formulae formed by the language of the underlying algebraic structure A of interest. These formulae can be themselves elements, or operators.

Using the jargon of universal algebra, we have identities taken from A. In S identities can be both elements and maps that take sets of identities and produces a set of identities
Let some identity $K_A$ which we want to discard from $A$, and let $B$ be the smallest set of identities we need to discard to discard $K_A$. $B$ are thus the necessary (and sometimes sufficient conditions) for $K_A$ to be proven
Now, a bypass is a set of identities $M\neq B$ which are not part of $A$ that allows $K_A$ to hold even after $B$ is discarded
Proof structures and semigroup actions are the reasons why I found abstract algebra quite visual. I mean what's the superficial difference between these (and possibly category theory diagrams) with drawing mechanisms in organic chemistry?
 
is there a theorem that if a sequence is cauchy in one metric it's cauchy in another?
 
12:22 PM
0
Q: Sequence is Cauchy in one metric and not in another metric which both determine the same topology on a set $X$

LauraI'm trying to figure out a case where for some set $X$ and two metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ which determine the same topology, but a sequence is Cauchy in one but not the other. My idea was to take the interval $X= (- \pi, \pi)$, with $d_1$ being the euclidean metric. Then there exists a natural hom...

 
thanks Secret, so the ansewr is no
 
yes, the answer is no
 
@GFauxPas consider that with the trivial metric the only Cauchy sequences are the eventually constant ones
 
what's the trivial metric?
 
$d(x,y)=1$ if $x\neq y$ and $0$ if they are equal
discrete metric sorry
(which makes sense as a name since it induces the discrete topology on the underlying set)
 
12:29 PM
hi @robjohn long time no see
 
@AkivaWeinberger what if I make this conjecture instead: every definable set is either finite or has a finite complement
would this be true?
 
@user685272 how are you?
 
fine thanks @robjohn and you?
 
@user685272 good, but busy
 
in The Periodic Table, 4 mins ago, by Secret
A proof is then basically a question on how you can synthesize the product (what you try to prove) from a starting material (the starting point of a proof) using the reagents given (theorems, lemmas and axioms of the algebraic structure)
in The Periodic Table, 3 mins ago, by Secret
One major difference, however is the reaction yield is 100% for the maths, but not in chemistry
Now, to cross pollinate this back to maths:
Define an algebraic structure with some kind of fuzzy logic such that given a formula, another formula which rewrites the contents of said formula to get a new formula
such that there is a x% success rate in rewriting said formula
(Need to dig a short proof as an example... please continue whatever you are doing)
 
12:37 PM
x% = a/b
 
12:49 PM
For example: Prove that $\sqrt{2}$ is irrational

Original proof:
1. Suppose $\sqrt{2}=\frac{p}{q}$
Square both sides:
2. Then $2=\frac{p^2}{q^2}$
Rearrange
3. Thus $2q^2=p^2$
even*even=even, even*odd=even, odd*odd=odd
4. Thus $p^2$ is even, thus p is even, thus $q^2$ is even thus $q$ is even, contradict the fact that $p,q$ have no common factors
Proof after applying that crazy proposal:
Proof:
1. Suppose $\sqrt{2}=\frac{p}{q}$
Square both sides: (50% chance of success)
2. Then 50% of the time, $2=\frac{p^2}{q^2}$
Rearrange (40% success rate)
3. Thus 50%*40% of the time $2q^2=p^2$
even*even=even, even*odd=even, odd*odd=odd (100% success rate)
4. Thus $p^2$ is even, thus p is even, thus $q^2$ is even thus $q$ is even, contradict the fact that $p,q$ have no common factors
Thus 20% of the time, there is a contradiction
Therefore, $\sqrt{2}$ is irrational 20% of the time
Fuzzy logic is a form of many-valued logic in which the truth values of variables may be any real number between 0 and 1. It is employed to handle the concept of partial truth, where the truth value may range between completely true and completely false. By contrast, in Boolean logic, the truth values of variables may only be the integer values 0 or 1. Furthermore, when linguistic variables are used, these degrees may be managed by specific (membership) functions. The term fuzzy logic was introduced with the 1965 proposal of fuzzy set theory by Lotfi Zadeh. Fuzzy logic had however been studied...
Now what happens if we have stochastic formal systems made from replacing classical logic in a deductive system with fuzzy logic...
(Pretty sure the artificial intelligence industry did similar things all the time...)
 

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