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2:00 PM
@SteamyRoot that's what I was missing! Thanks
 
Did you solve that exercise about that finite set of $GL_n(\Bbb C)$ @BalarkaSen ?
 
@Astyx Oh, I forgot. Let me do that.
Thanks for the reminder.
 
2:19 PM
Let $(x_n)$ be an increasing sequence of positive numbers. Is it true that $\frac{x_{n-1}}{x_n}$ converges to $0$?
 
if $x_n$ converges to $2$, then the fraction converges to $\frac12$, obviously
 
Nope. I think $x_n = n$ is a counterexample.
 
@LeakyNun Did you mean, the fraction converges to $1$?
 
@BalarkaSen not really
 
Oh yeah I guess it's $x_{n-1} = x_n - (x_n - x_{n-1})$, and the difference there goes to $0$.
 
2:23 PM
It 's false : $$x_n=1+\frac{1}{n}$$ increasing and the rapport converged to 1
 
@LeakyNun Wut ?
 
@Leaky Wait, that means it's $1$?
I was right.
 
what? $\frac{2-1}{2} = \frac12$
 
That quotient can converge to anything in $[0,1]$
 
1+1/n and not 1-1/n
 
2:24 PM
@Leaky $x_n - x_{n-1} \to 0$
Convergent sequences are Cauchy.
 
oh wait
 
@Leaky $x_{n-1}$, not $x_n -1$
 
I thought it said $\frac{x_n-1}{x_n}$
$\frac{x_n-1}{x_n}$ vs $\frac{x_{n-1}}{x_n}$
can't blame me :P
 
I can, and I will !
 
Oh fair. I see the confusion now.
I am always wary of contradicting you fellows. You are all cleverer than me.
 
2:26 PM
Is it true the series $$u_n=\sum\limits_{k=2}^n \frac{\cos(\frac{k^2+1}{k-1})}{\sqrt{k}} $$ converged ?
 
I'm the clevererest
Probably @Dattier
 
why ?
 
It didn't, but maybe it would.
 
You'd want to apply summation by part (Abel transformation)
 
And ?
 
2:28 PM
I don't have the will to do these calculations
Do you know Abel transformation ?
 
This is not enough
 
I take that as a "Yes, I've tried it"
 
a_n=? and b_n= ?
 
The cos and the $\sqrt k$
I mean, this looks like $\sum {\sin n\over n}$
 
why \sum cos is bounded or anything
 
2:30 PM
Which you can solve using Abel transformation
You can use complex exponential to see if you get some results
 
No, I don't a want a magic formular but an explication an recipe
 
As I said, I haven't done the calculations so I wouldn't know
Do you know the answer ?
 
yes
I think
 
Okay, I can't be bothered to try it right now
 
Maybe this enigma, it's for all
 
2:34 PM
Hey if I just read that the vector space $H$ of all homogenous solutions of a linear differential equations system fulfils: $dim H \le dim \mathbb{C}^n$. When having constant coefficients supposedly we have $dim H = dim \mathbb{C}^n$, so it just with non-constant coefficients that we get a lower dimension? Is there aneasy example?
 
Example of what ?
In dimension one, you can easily take $y'=y$ and $y' = 2x y$
 
of a linear differential equation where $dim H < dim \mathbb{C}^n$
 
In both case $H$ is of dimension 1
I guess you take the coefficient of the derivative of highest order to be 1
Otherwise, for instance $xy' =1$ has no solutions on $\Bbb R$
 
that's not a linear equation
 
However if you write $y^{(n)} + \sum_{k=0}^{n-1}f_k(x) y^{(k)} = 0$, then by Cauchy Lipschit the space of solutions is of dimension $n$ (isomorphic to $\Bbb C^n$)
My bad, it isn't
 
2:42 PM
no y
all constante
 
@Astyx You example is of first order and has one solution, but I want like a linear equation of n-th order that has k<n linear independant solutions
 
dim 1
 
I'm confusing myself
 
and I'm somewhat sure that this is possible only if all coefficients are non-constant, but I'd would like to see an example
but thank you
 
Yeah, if you take $xy' = (x+2)y$, when $x\ne 0$ you get $y' = (1+{2\over x})y$ of which a solution on $\Bbb R_+^*$ (and $\Bbb R_-^*$) is $y(x) = x^2e^x$
So the dimension of the space of solutions is $2$
Because any function $$f_{\alpha, \beta} : x\mapsto\begin{cases}\alpha x^2e^x \text{ if }x\ge0\\\beta x^2e^x \text{ otherwise} \end{cases}$$ works
@Felix.C
So $\dim H\gt 1$ which makes me doubt your statement
 
2:55 PM
Guys, consider
$$
a=b\cdot\frac{n}{d},
$$
where $\gcd(b,d)=1$ and $1\leq b\leq d$, and $1\leq a\leq n$. Does it follow from here that $\gcd(a,n)=n/d$? It’s obvious that $n/d$ is a divisor of both $a$ and $n$. My guess is that if $\gcd(a,n)>n/d$, then we would have a contradiction with $\gcd(b,d)=1$. I know I can prove it the other way around, for if $\gcd(b,d)>1$, then $\gcd(a,n)>n/d$, which is a contradiction.
Say $\gcd(a,n)=k>n/d$. Then we can write $a=b’k$, and we have $b’<b$. But yea, I’m not sure what to do from here on.
 
If $(x_n)$ is an increasing sequence of positive numbers, then can I say that $\frac{x_n}{x_{n+1}}$ is monotonic? I know I cannot generally say that the ratio it is increasing, as $x_n = n$ would provide a counterexample to this. But can I say that it will be generally monotonic?
 
No
Take any sequence of numbers $u_n \ge 1$, and define $x_n = \prod_{k=1}^n u_k$
 
@Astyx Hmm...So if $(x_n)$ is an increasing sequence of positive numbers, will $\frac{x_n}{x_{n+1}}$ generally converge?
 
@Astyx I have to think again some minutes about my question...to make an at least in my opninion correct statement ;)
 
No @user193319 with the same argument
@Felix.C Take your time :p
 
3:09 PM
hi
 
How do I compute efficiently the determinant of the matrix that has random diagonal coefficients $\alpha_i$, all $a$ above the main diagonal and all $b$ under ?
 
@Astyx First of all nice example, but you just found one single solution. You mentioned that we have the same solution for $\Bbb R_+^*$ and $\Bbb R_-^*$ that are two differant intervalls, so that doesn't contradict my claim.
 
No, these are solutions in $\Bbb R$
So you have two linearily independant solutions
 
3:19 PM
haha, today's xkcd is apropos given our 'threat' conversation earlier:
Real analysis is way realer than I expected.
2
 
Ohi Semi, any idea about my determinant question ? :)
 
didn't see it.
 
like, 7 messages above
 
I believe xkcd spies on this chatroom to get inspiration
It's a classic, but I don't remember it
 
3:20 PM
Hmmmm
 
If $a = b = 1$ I know a good solution :P
 
so a matrix $L+U+D$ where $L$ is constant lower-triangular, $U$ is constant upper-triangular, and $D$ is some arbitrary diagonal matrix.
 
Right
 
You can, of course, assume either $a$ or $b$ is $1$.
 
I know the answer btw
Just not how to find it :p
 
3:23 PM
Think I see a good route via the matrix determinant lemma.
 
Wild guess: $$a^n \left(\prod_{i=1}^n (\alpha_i - b/a) + \sum_{i=1}^n \prod_{j \neq i} (\alpha_j - b/a)\right)$$
 
There surely is a polynomial argument there
 
Namely, we can write the matrix as $A+buu^T$ where $u$ is a column vector of ones. (uu^T will be a matrix of ones)
 
Solution is $$b\prod_{i=1}^n(\alpha_i - a) - a\prod_{i=1}^n(\alpha_i-b)\over b-a$$
 
consequently the matrix determinant lemma tells us that $\det(A+buu^T)=(1+bu^T A^{-1}u)\det A$.
But $A$ is our initial matrix with every element decremented by B. So that'll be $\alpha_i-b$ for the diagonal entries, $a-b$ above the diagonal, and 0 below the diagonal.
The determinant of $A$ is then immediately $\prod_i^n (\alpha_i-b)$. That leaves the first term to compute.
 
3:28 PM
@Astyx In that case it's pretty easy, no?
Induction
 
Yeah but that's not beautiful :(
 
Also, note that $u^T M u$ will be the sum of all the entries of $M$.
 
Why not?
 
I was thinking of considering $M-XJ$ where J is all 1
 
If you just do one row operation it gets really easy.
 
3:29 PM
@Astyx That's basically what I'm doing :)
 
This values $\prod \alpha_i$ when $X = a,b$
 
with $X=bI$, specifically.
 
Oh, I don't have the insight to realise that
Yeah, I meant X to be the unknow of a polynomial
 
Sure.
Alas, I think my approach isn't as good as I'd like---I don't remember how to do matrix inversion in this case.
 
@Astyx I don't think that example you gave always works. If $u_n = n \ge 1$ for every $n$, then $x_ n = n!$ and $\frac{x_n}{x_{n+1}} = \frac{1}{n+1} \to 0$.
 
3:33 PM
So ?
 
@Astyx You said that any sequence satisfying the condition would work.
 
Yeah, I no longer trust my approach.
 
So I said that was an equivalent definition of your sequences. You're asking wether ${1\over u_n}$ always converges.
 
@Astyx I am not sure I follow. I was asking whether $\frac{x_n}{x_{n+1}}$ converges, provided $x_n$ is an increasing sequence of positive numbers.
 
Good news is, I remembered how to make such a matrix efficiently in Mathematica
SparseArray[{{i_, j_} /; i < j->b, {i_, j_}/;i > j ->a, {i_, i_} -> \[Alpha][i]}, {n, n}]
 
3:37 PM
Yes, I'm saying that's equivalent to asking wether $1\over u_n$ always converges for any $u_n\ge 1$
 
where n is the matrix size.
Works efficiently for arbitrarily large $n$ :)
 
Anyway, the induction argument boils down to rewriting
$$(\alpha_n - b)\frac{b\prod_{i=1}^{n-1}(\alpha_i-a) - a\prod_{i=1}^{n-1}(\alpha_i-b)}{b-a} + (\alpha_{n-1}-a) \frac{b\prod_{i=1}^{n-2}(\alpha_i-a)(b-a)}{b-a}$$
 
Of course, Array works well here too:
Array[Which[#1 > #2, a, #1 < #2, b, #1 == #2, \[Alpha][#1]] &, {n, n}]
 
Which you can almost do on sight :P
 
Guys, if $\gcd(m,n)=k$, how can I show that $\gcd(m,n/k)=1$? I tried using contradiction: assume $\gcd(m,n/k)=l>1$. Then we know that $l\mid m$ and $lk\mid n$. It seems to me I should be able to get that some number $r>k$ divides $m$, but I don't know how. Any ideas?
 
3:42 PM
Oh right, polynomial approach destroys the problem
You can prove $\det (M-XI)$ is affine
And you can easilly compute it for $X = a,b$
So you have the value for $X=0$
 
If gcd(m,n)=k then that means k|m, k|n, right?
 
@ShaVuklia This is not true, try m=3 and n=9.
 
(This is not a socratic question, this is me genuinely not remembering things)
 
oh huh
I got it from here
 
Probably you meant $\gcd(m/k,n/k)=1$?
 
3:44 PM
heh.
 
I guess I misinterpreted it
but I try to show that $\#S(k)=\phi(n/k)$
 
Ah. Yeah, the greatest common divisor of m,n is by definition a divisor of n :)
 
Actually that's nuts
 
And you use there exactly that $\gcd(m,n)=k$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $\gcd(m/k,n/k)=1$.
 
$\det(M + XJ)$ is always always affine
 
3:46 PM
I thought that $S(k)$ consists of the elements $m$ such that $\gcd(m,n)=k$ and $\phi(n/k)$ counts the positive elements $m$ such that $\gcd(m,n/k)=1$
 
Cause $\det(C_1 + X, \dots, C_n + X) = \det(C_1 + X, C_2-C_1, \dots, C_n - C_1)$
 
I forget what it means for a determinant to be affine.
 
Anyway, I need to go, thanks for your time
 
The map $m\mapsto m/k$ is the bijection between $S(k)$ and the $\{j \le n/k; \gcd(j,k)=1\}$.
 
I mean $\det(M+xJ) = \alpha x + \beta$ for some constants $\alpha, \beta$
affine here is about the polynomial
 
3:47 PM
Huh.
 
I don't know anything about affine meaning something general for determinants
 
Okay.
 
@Martin but how do we know that $m\mid k$?
 
@ShaVuklia $\phi(n/k)$ counts integers such that $\gcd(m,n/k)=1$ and *additionally $m\le n/k$.
@ShaVuklia Do you mean $k\mid m$?
 
oh yea sorry that's indeed what I meant
 
3:50 PM
If $m\in S(k)$, then you know that $\gcd(m,n)=k$ and, consequently, $k$ is a divisor of $m$.
 
ohh right
 
Happy Tau Day!
7
 
BTW the top voted answer in this question gives basically the same proof: Is there a direct, elementary proof of $n = \sum_{k|n} \phi(k)$?
 
Ew, tau.
 
@AkivaWeinberger it's my last 9 minutes of tau day
and I never noticed
 
3:51 PM
 
D'oh! Your screenshot is from that answer, right?
 
yes that is correct
alright I'll try to understand that answer @Martin
 
@Astyx And now, try to find the determinant when $a = b$? :P
 
@MartinSleziak Write the fractions $\{\frac kn:1\le k\le n\}$ in reduced form
For 6, for example, you get $\frac16$, $\frac13$, $\frac12$, $\frac23$, $\frac56$, $\frac11$
Note that $\phi(6)=2$, $\phi(3)=2$, $\phi(2)=1$, and $\phi(1)=1$
 
could someone explain to me what is the exact definition of $L \ ^ 2 [0,1]$ ? im not sure about it.
 
3:54 PM
I find it so hard, I have to read it 10 times over, so that's why you don't hear from me
 
and also that there are two fractions with denominator $6$, two with denominator $3$, one with denominator $2$, and one with denominator $1$.
 
is it defined to be the complement of $C[0,1]$ to a complete metric space?
 
I don't remember, but I think it's the ones whose squares are integratable?
 
Should be square-integrable functions on $[0,1]$, yeah.
(finite L^2-norm)
 
so am i correct?
 
3:56 PM
@Martin how do we know that $t$ divides $n$, in $s/t$?
 
In any case, $|\{\frac kn:1\le k\le n\}|=n$, clearly, and counting by the ones of each denominator (when written in reduced form) gives you $\sum_{k|n}\phi(k)$.
Thus $n=\sum_{k|n}\phi(k)$, QED.
 
$L^2([0,1])$ is the Hilbert space of square-integrable functions equipped with the inner product $\langle f,g \rangle = \int_0^1 f(x)\overline{g(x)} dx $
 
i also need to prove that if $\{c_n \} \subset \Bbb C$ s.t $\sum |c_n| \ ^ 2 \lt \infty$ then there is $F \in L \ ^ 2 [0,1]$ s.t the fourier's coefficients are $c_n$ . i thought defining $F(x) = \sum c_n e_n(x)$ , and then $d_n = <F , e_n>$ would be $c_n$ because $\{e_n\}$ is ortonormal basis.
 
@Akiva what do you mean by "counting the ones of each denominator"? You mean that we're going to count the ones with the same denominator?
apparently that gives $\phi(k)$?
for denominator $k$, I suppose?
 
@ShaVuklia Did you see the example above with $n=6$?
 

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