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8:02 PM
@Obliv Let's see, what exactly did I say?
 
I think you said $f(A) = \{f(a) | a \in A\}$
 
The image is $f(A)=\{f(a)\mid a\in A\}$
 
oh
 
The preimage is $f^{-1}(B)=\{a\mid b=f(a), b\in B\}$
 
I suppose that's right
isn't my definition correct too?
 
8:05 PM
Uh
I don't get what you said
That's not correct set builder notation
$f(a)$ is not a condition
Read it aloud:
 
Oh wait I think it would be $f(A) = \{ a \in B | a = f(a)\}$
 
All elements $a$ in $A$ such that $f(a)$
 
yeah I realized that
 
What?
That's the definition of the set of fixed points now
 
a member of B?
 
8:07 PM
$a=f(a)$ means $a$ is a fixed point
 
isn't the transformed set a subset of B?
so the members of it should be in B, right?
 
Yes, but $a=f(a)$ is wrong in general
There are many ways to write things in this notation btw
 
yeah I noticed
I read it as "such that a is equal to f(a)" so
 
@Obliv did you mean to write $\{b\in B\mid b=f(a)\}$?
 
for all a that is
 
8:09 PM
@Obliv uhhh, do you not see the issue with $a=f(a)$?
 
what is different from $b = f(a)$ and $a = f(a)$
 
Because $a$ appears twice in the second?!?!?!
 
The second one really doesn't make sense.
 
You're literally asking what the difference between $f(x)=y$ and $f(x)=x$ is!
 
Unless you're talking very specifically about the identity function.
 
8:10 PM
members of $B$ are equal to the members of $a$ transformed by $f$. members of $A$ are equal to transformed members of $a$ through function $f$.
is that how one should read both
 
Right, so f(a) is a member of set B
f transforms A to B
 
What you're saying is that $a$ in $A$ gets sent to the SAME thing $a$ in $B$
 
oh..
I see what you mean
LOL
i'm saying a = b basically
 
what is $b$???
 
members of B
oh wait no im not
 
8:12 PM
sweats
Dude what is confusing you so much
 
i'm saying a is equal to the transformed elements in B. please don't sweat LOL
 
No book is this terrible
 
I GET IT
ok
 
@Obliv So the image is $f(A):=\{f(a)\mid a\in A\}$
 
yeah
I forgot how to use predicate notation. you were right :p
 
8:15 PM
So anyway @0celo7
For now, no more GR
I'm going all QFT
 
Predicate notation?
@Slereah WHAT
 
the $|$
 
Gonna try to do all of Peskin Schroeder
 
@Obliv No one actually calls it that.
 
what do u call it then
 
8:16 PM
I really wanna do the Thesis
But GR thesis seems a bit unlikely
 
The fucking line in the set notation thingie?
 
So I wanna buff up on my QFT
 
Why would you need a name for it?
 
Set builder notation, @0celo7
 
"such that"
 
8:17 PM
because there's a difference between listing a set's elements out the long way and using a notation where you can specify a condition for the elements to have to meet to be an element of the set
 
@Obliv you just read it as "such that"
 
YEAH I KNOW THAT
 
some people use $:$ for it
 
$:$ means equivalent, no?
 
What
In what notation
Usually $\sim$ means equivalent
 
8:18 PM
You're ultimately invoking the Axiom Schema of Reduction.
 
That is just the Standard Set Builder Notation
Jeez
 
If S is a set, the elements of S satisfying a condition C also form a set.
 
@Obliv why are you making this so hard
 
@0celo7 no you're right : is equal to $|$ I must have looked in the wrong area
 
⊢ (𝑥 ∈ {𝑦 ∣ 𝜑} ↔ [𝑥 / 𝑦]𝜑)
if u want an equivalent notation
 
8:20 PM
@0celo7 Patience is a requirement for pedagogy.
 
@Slereah stop
 
@Slereah I applaud that notation.
@Slereah Now do: "there exists a statement in ZF that is neither provable nor is its negation provable"
 
Let me get my Godel book
 
@Slereah Well that's too easy.
Technically, I should add "OR there exists a statement in ZF that is provable and its negation is also provable"
 
what's the inverse image of an element though?
 
8:26 PM
$f^{-1}(x)$
 
the book calls it a fiber
 
It is a fiber if it's the projector of a bundle, yes
 
okay I see.
 
you don't get set notation but are reading about fiber bundles oO
 
this is just in the preliminaries&basics part of the book
 
8:28 PM
@obliv what book are you reading?
 
dummit & foote "abstract algebra"
 
Godel writes it as $(x,y,z)[\{\tilde{} x \mathfrak{B} y \& z \mathfrak{B} \text{Neg}y\}]\rightarrow (x) \tilde{} x \mathfrak{B}\gamma(p,p)$
 
Yeah, that did seem like a bit of a jump
 
@0celo7 Sayeth the guy who can be posting differential geometry proofs one hour and whining about PDEs the next.
 
lol
 
8:29 PM
@dmckee Whining != don't understand
Whining is whining
@Slereah literally satan
 
Not ZFC, tho
 
@Slereah Don't kill yourself :)
 
It's old logic notation from Russell
$(x)$ is $\forall x$
 
@Slereah For all x, y, z... what is cursive B?
 
@Obliv let's get a legal copy
 
8:30 PM
Not CURSIVE
 
third edition?
 
It's FRAKTUR
 
@0celo7 yes.
 
You peasant
 
Dummit calls the inverse image of an element a fiber
 
8:30 PM
what page
 
15
 
@Slereah It worries me that I don't know these things.
 
@bolbteppa that's so weird
I think
 
@Obliv did you already do calc 1-3?
 
It certainly ever appears in other places
Maybe it's an algebra thing?
 
8:31 PM
calc 1-3 = calc -2
 
no i still have to take 3
 
It's actually really clever, tells you there's more to fiber bundles than you think
 
LOL barry
 
$x \mathfrak{B} y$ means that x is a proof of y
 
Yay, someone got it.
 
8:32 PM
Where x is a proof and y is a formula
 
@Obliv you should probably do that first.
 
In fact right there is the secret to abstract algebra, but I'l scribble that in a margin to small to contain it
 
@bolbteppa what?
 
@Slereah You realize I was joking when I asked you to write that, right?
 
Well I did, whatcha gonna do about it :V
 
8:32 PM
@3075 my motivation for studying abstract algebra is that I want to know the architecture of algebra so that linear algebra comes more intuitively.
 
@Obliv normally you learn linear algebra first.
you're a physicist right? so you're wasting your time I think.
 
@3075 I'm a physics student. nothing is for sure. I like math a lot too and I have downtime so I don't think it's a waste of time.
 
@Obliv what linear algebra books you having trouble with?/
 
@bolbteppa I was studying axler's "linear algebra done right" and found that linear algebra is a study of like 2 algebraic structures and I want to learn all of the structures before I delve into the specifics of each one. thats my reasoning anyway
 
@Obliv no I mean you could be learning linear algebra, calc 3 in your free time instead, which will allow you to learn more advanced physics.
 
8:37 PM
@Obliv You're better than physics. Join the Math side.
 
wow.
 
@barrycarter What did you say? ::gets pitchfork::
 
@ACuriousMind I meant... uh, physics sure is great for physicists!
@barrycarter Note to self: keep peasants happy
 
8:52 PM
@DanielSank You probably know John Martinis then, right? I'm gonna go listen to his talk today at Cal!
 
Probably a simple question, but I couldn't find it/the right search term. Say you have two qubits, a and b, with lifetimes and decoherence times T1a,b and T2a,b. Now say that these two qubits (or any two level system) are in a symmetric superposition. How does one then determine the decoherence time (and life time) of the symmetric superposition? I imagine it might be the lowest of the two constituent qubits, but it would be nice to quantify
 
Isn't a function injective by definition?
 
No
 
@Obliv No.
Let $f(x)=x^2$.
 
for the map $f: A \to B $ $ f$ is injective if whenever $a_1 \ne a_2$, $f(a_1) \ne f(a_2)$
this is the definition right?
 
9:00 PM
@Obliv Yes. It means two different values of a can't map to the same value of b.
That's sort of the "foil" of the definition of function: one value of a can't map to two values of b.
 
isn't the definition of a function: a relation where for each of its domain's, there exists only 1 co-domain. or something along those lines?
 
@Obliv Function: for every one a, there is one b. Injective: for every one b, there is at most one a.
It's like the difference between polyandry and polygamy.
 
oh i was reading that wrong I see now
thx @all
 
@Anthony Great. He was talking about that yesterday in the office.
Don't be afraid to ask questions.
 
9:21 PM
o/
@Obliv I think that's the wrong reasoning.
Would you really like to learn about sheaves and topoi before mastering linear algebra?
 
@Obliv Answer carefully. You must choose between the paths of righteousness and physics.
 
@Obliv Think about a particle moving on a circle, round and round. Define $f:\Bbb R\to \Bbb R^3$ by $f(t)=x(t)$ where $x(t)$ is the position of the particle.
This is not injective if the particle goes around the circle at least once, or if it stands still at any point
Oh, I see your reasoning was already corrected. Feel free to ignore my example.
 
@Danu That's the simplest example you could come up with?
 
and it wouldn't be a function if the particle was in two positions at some time t right? @danu
No i think that's a great example honestly.
 
@barrycarter It's physical.
 
9:25 PM
@Obliv It wouldn't even be a particle if it was in two positions at the same time.
 
@Obliv Yeah, then it'd be ill-defined (not single-valued).
@Obliv Thanks.
Physical examples help because you intuitively feel that it makes sense, more so than with abstract functions :P
 
Perhaps he is a physicist after all.
 
Of course, a much more simple example is $f:\Bbb R \to \Bbb R; f(t)=0,\ \forall t\in\Bbb R$.
 
Yes, or f(x) = x^2 someone noted earlier.
{0,1} -> {0}
That's probably the simplest possible example.
 
Interesting little exercise: $f:X\to Y$ is injective if and only if $f^{-1}\circ f=\operatorname{id}_X$
 
9:28 PM
Isn't that pretty much the definition
 
Similar flavor, $f$ is surjective iff $f\circ f^{-1}=\operatorname{id}_Y$
 
@Danu Lies! That doesn't work if f isn't surjective, since f^-1 wouldn't be defined.
 
@Slereah Na
@barrycarter You can always take preimages.
 
A function must be defined on all elements of its domain.
 
You don't need an inverse function for that.
 
9:29 PM
$f^{-1}$ is defined even if it has no inverse
 
Then it's a different function!
 
It just happens to be a set
Not a function
 
$f^{-1}(y)$ is a subset of $X$, and so is more generally $f^{-1}(K)$ for any $K\subset Y$
 
Oh geez, so f^-1 could be the empty set?
 
@barrycarter $f^{-1}(y)$ is empty iff $f$ does not "reach" $y$.
 
9:30 PM
I'm going to be whiny and say f^-1 to me means the function that is the inverse of f.
 
Well then you're going to have a bad time reading any elementary math book.
If you want to be very precise and pedantic, you can take care to always "apply to a set" when indicating preimages, e.g. writing $f\circ f^{-1}(U)=U$ for every $U\subset Y$ instead of what I wrote.
Then, no confusion can arise.
 
I have to prove that $f:A \to B$ is bijective if there exists a map $g: B \to A$ where $f \circ g $ maps $B \to B$ and $g \circ f$ maps $A \to A$. gl me lol.
 
@Danu Er, I was using the math definition. f^-1 doesn't even exist if f is not both surjective and injective.
 
@barrycarter "the math definition"
 
Yes.
 
9:33 PM
I'm just going to tell you that $f\circ f^{-1}=\operatorname{id}_Y$ is a perfectly normal thing that you'll see in many math books.
 
@Danu as opposed to the "dirty physicist" definition
 
If you choose to shut your ears, eyes and yell LALALA that's wrong then go ahead.
 
@Danu: I have never seen someone write $f^{-1}\circ f = \mathrm{id}$ where $f^{-1}$ is not a function.
 
@Danu Provided that f is surjective and injective, sure.
 
@ACuriousMind I can show you an example :P
 
9:33 PM
@Danu In a MATH book?
 
Sigh, I have to admit I don't have the example I saw most recently at hand---it was in a problem set for a course one of my tutees was taking.
 
Suuuuure
 
@Danu Is it preceded by some sort of explicit statement that $f,f^{-1}$ are considered as functions on the powerset instead of functions on the spaces themselves?
 
@0celo7 Hahaha :D
@ACuriousMind I don't remember.
 
@Danu admit it, you goofed
 
9:37 PM
Because I'd say it's fine if one says that, but without that, that's confusing notation.
 
I don't think I goofed, and as I indicated before, I'm willing to concede that more precise notation would be
$f\circ f^{-1}(U)=U$
Which is definitely 100% correct, and I think the confusion is minimal in any case.
 
@Danu Suuuuure
 
@0celo7 Suuuuuure what?
 
@Danu Whoa calm down
 
7 mins ago, by Danu
If you want to be very precise and pedantic, you can take care to always "apply to a set" when indicating preimages, e.g. writing $f\circ f^{-1}(U)=U$ for every $U\subset Y$ instead of what I wrote.
@0celo7 I promise you I'm writing this with a smile on my face :)
But Suuuuure what?
 
9:39 PM
@Danu What does that have to do with anything
I'm sure e.g. Bundy was smiling when he tortured and killed his victims!
Smiling means nothing!
If anything, it means you're a killer!
 
He was probably calm.
It means that I'm calm ;)
 
Brah, calm down
 
@0celo7 Meh, you're just being an ass. That's okay @0celo7, I can understand it ;)
 
Oh really?
Is it because I'm bored?
 
Perhaps your mother didn't hold you enough.
 
9:45 PM
lol
 
@0celo7 If I'm re-learning gr what book should I read?
I'm reading your gr book answer.
 
all of them there, probably
 
but I'm not interested in gr.
this is only to be well rounded.
oh right.
the lecture notes I had.
I'll read those.
 
@Danu No really, I'm interested in your analysis
Did my parents not love me enough
?
 
hey isn't $\sqrt{x}$ the inverse of $x^2$ making $x^2$ injective?
 
9:58 PM
No
 
@0celo7 You don't have any parents. Some non-orientable surface just spat you out at some point
 
@Obliv No, sqrt x means the positive square root
 
@Danu What the fuck
 
:D
 
sqrt(x^2) is abs(x)
 
9:59 PM
What'd you expect me to tell you?
 
@Danu whoah lol
 
@Danu you've been reading too much Riemann surface stuff
 
@0celo7 If it annoys/offends you then I'll delete it
 
@Danu It triggers me
 
...in what way?
 
9:59 PM
Best putdown ever!
 
OK, enough weird shit for today
 
xD
 
that was way weirder than it was meant to be
 
Bye.
 
@Danu <3
 
10:00 PM
@barrycarter oh and $\pm \sqrt{x}$ isn't a function so $x^2$ doesn't have an inverse. I gotcha
 
@Obliv Correct. At least, it's not a function from R to R. Some of these "physicists" would argue it's a function from R to R^2.
 
i don't want to know why that is
2complicated4me
 
@Obliv I'd ignore him.
He doesn't understand basic physics and comes here and insults physicists?
 
@0celo7 On the offchance you're not blocking me and are actually offended, I should point out that I'm pretty much just joking.
 
@barrycarter I've unblocked you, and am not offended. Doesn't mean I want to read shit, y'know?
 
10:05 PM
@0celo7 It's a friendly rivalry between physicists and mathematicians. It's the subject of a great deal of humor.
 
@barrycarter is your enter key beside the 0 key or c key?
lol
 
@3075 Yeah, I know, two times in a row.
 
xD
 
Oh wow, when I type, "@0" and then tab, I sometimes just tab through items on this page.
 
10:20 PM
@barrycarter What kind of mathematician are you, anyway?
 
@ACuriousMind The best kind.
 
I meant: Algebraist, analyst, graph theorist,...?
 
@ACuriousMind Yes, I know, Abstract Algebra.
 
@ACuriousMind seriously?
Graph theory is before topology and geometry in your esteem list?
 
What? That's not my "esteem list"
Just three subfields that popped into my head
 
10:27 PM
The current division is Abstract Algebra, Real Analysis and Complex Analysis.
Those are the three "main" "super fields"
I should be able to even source that.
 
@barrycarter And the logicians and topologists wept.
 
@ACuriousMind That's all under Abstract Algebra.
Well, pure topology anyway.
Once you start metricizing, maybe not.
mathematics.stanford.edu/academics/graduate/phd-program/… ... well, there were three when I took them.
math.stanford.edu/~white/quals/qualinfo.htm <- historical evidence that there were 3 tests required at one point
 

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