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1:13 AM
smoke mah homegrowm wit me home brone.
 
I am done! I managed!
 
1:29 AM
Congrats
 
1:43 AM
Should I answer m own question?
No idea...
Mr Eyeglasses, party with me!
 
I'm not much of a partier @Student
I'm pretty much a party pooper
I'm the kind of guy who would report any questionable activity at a fun party to the authorities
 
@ಠ_ಠ Define questionable activity.
 
passes @Studentmath the blunt
 
Like drugs or underage drinking or assaulting
 
well assaulting yeah don't let that just happen
 
1:58 AM
I would probably get beat up
 
i don't think you can call it a party if none of those things are happening, @ಠ_ಠ.
 
Oh
Well, that's what I see on TV and movies and stuff
I've never been to a party myself so I'm just speculating
 
well I think if you just get rid of the underage drinking, and make sure it's the right drugs, that takes care of everything else
no assaulting to worry about
 
@AlexanderGruber Man.
I am stuck.
This guys isn't defining something.
 
which something, @PedroTamaroff?
 
2:02 AM
Sorry
 
Page 6 there.
"Consider the generating function for partitions..."
Fix $n$. I'd let $a_k$ be the number of partitions of $k$ into distinct parts of size at most $n$ and let $F_n(q)=\sum_{k\geqslant 0}a_kq^k$.
But the generating function seems to have both $x$ and $q$.
I'm lost.
 
@PedroTamaroff you're talking about the third paragraph of that proof?
 
@AlexanderGruber The sentence immediately after "Second proof of Theorem 2.1".
 
Pedro I spent a semester studying that damn function
 
@MikeMiller What. Give me the definition. I think you're thinking about something else. I am thinking about $$\prod (1+xq^j)$$
 
2:08 AM
the partition function, you weenie
 
Well I am not talking about that silly.
 
but ultimately it was studying q-series for a semester
 
Cool.
 
for some people
 
yeah man this is confusing
 
2:12 AM
@AlexanderGruber I get what the proof is doing.
But I don't have a definition of that function.
Which is bothering me.
 
what, the generating function for partitions?
$1/(q;q)_\infty$
 
@MikeMiller The author is talking about a bivariate generating function in $q,x$ that is "the generating function for partitions with distinct parts each $\leqslant n$."
I don't know how that is defined.
The coefficients, that is.
Ultimately, this is $$\prod_{j=1}^n(1+xq^j)$$
Which I can see.
 
so if looks like they're summing over two indices, one bounding the number of parts and the other the exact number of parts.
err bounding the size of the parts
oh no I'm an idiot.
why am I doing this nope.
 
r9m
2:49 AM
@Sawarnik Check the edited proof to the Bounty Problem .. :P .. the last one was wrong & you didn't notice it :P sorry lol :P
 
3:06 AM
Experience shows that 20% of the people reserving tables at a certain restaurant never
show up. If the restaurant has 50 tables and takes 52 reservations, then the probability
that it will be able to accommodate everyone is $1-14(\frac 45) ^{52}$
I am not getting how 14 is derived.
@r9m, please help.!
@r9m, is that wrong answer?
 
3:28 AM
@AlexanderGruber I guess I got it. We use $x$ to count blocks in the partition (if need be) and $q$ to specificate the number being partitioned. Thus, let $[[k,n]]_t$ denote the number of partitions of $t$ into $k$ distinct blocks of size at most $n$. Then $$\sum_{k\geqslant 0}\sum_{t\geqslant 0}[[k,n]]_t q^tx^k$$ is the generating function of partitions into different parts of size at most $n$.
 
@Pedro @DanielF: This one has gotten more wrong/deleted efforts than anything I've seen before. I still have no solution. Any bright ideas?
 
One can see that $\sum_{t\geqslant 0}[[k,n]]_t q^t=A_k^n(q)$ is the generating function of the partitions into $k$ distinct blocks of size at most $n$.
@TedShifrin DANG, I was about to sleep.
Let me look.
 
God, Pedro, you get into the weirdest shit.
 
Sowwee...
 
@MikeMiller Yeah, I'm cool that way.
@MikeMiller Today I learned quite a bunch of stuff. Like what a Ferrers diagram is.
 
3:33 AM
I've never been cool, and I'm cool with that!
 
Yes, those are essential for the sorts of things you're looking at.
 
@TedShifrin my brain hurts
 
Mine too ... It's intriguingly difficult. There's got to be a uniform Cauchy sneak, but my usual integral tricks don't seem to apply.
 
Night, @Pedro. Do it tomorrow am while I'm tennising.
 
3:37 AM
BAI.
 
@TedShifrin What's the keyword for topological spaces with a specified $H_n$?
(i.e., Eilenberg-Maclane for $\pi_n$)
 
Homology doesn't work like homotopy.
It's no challenge to make a cell complex as you desire, but it's of no natural use like $K(\pi,n)$s.
 
I'm not aware of the natural uses of the $K(\pi, n)$s (that they compute group homology, or something similar?)
@TedShifrin So you're saying I should construct such an $H_n$ myself? :)
 
They show up as classifying spaces ...
 
Anyway, I wasn't expecting a wide literature, but rather how to do it.
 
3:43 AM
Actually, we can't kill $H_0$, but you could do reduced. And then you have spheres, duh.
 
Spheres for free...
the question remains how to get the torsion parts, which isn't obvious to me
I can't name a given space with $H_1 = \Bbb Z/n\Bbb Z, H_{i>1} = 0$
 
Oh, with integral coeffs?
 
Yeah.
 
Sure you can.
 
If I were just looking over a field this would be super duper trivial... have a little faith in me.
 
3:47 AM
No, I was going to allow $G$ coeffs, silly.
 
You are the biggest cheater in the world.
 
Hell, if I can't do uniform convergence, why not?
Anyhow, you can do your question as a CW complex easily.
And you can suspend to get it for any $k$, methinks.
 
Right, that was my plan.
But I think you can do it for a CW complex easily. I'm still thinking.
 
Do cellular homology.
 
gotcha.
stupid of me. thanks
 
3:52 AM
No problem.
I'm still stuck on the analysis. I'll work a few more minutes and go to sleep. Night!
 
@r9m
 
4:26 AM
Oh great, SE want to change the user profile pages
 
@AlecTeal i kinda like it
 
It's just crap in the way
 
@AlecTeal i think the badges and tags are an improvement
but they need to decrease the font size or something
it takes up like 3 screens
 
I never really look that far
/me is really interested in the questions, user name and answers part
 
Whatever happened to minimalism?
 
4:35 AM
@skullpatrol why did they start ironing logos?
I think designers get bored
 
3 screens is excessive imo
 
@skullpatrol the size is definitely a problem
 
I don't see anything different
 
Like the bloody top bar
"We want the same colour across all sites"
Then they were cleansed.
 
aw now that's just crazy, the new top bar is great
 
4:39 AM
You know what I miss, it working without JS
I also miss seeing my user name in the corner
Instead I see 1028, 2 and 18
With a gray square and a orange triangle
WTF does it mean!?
 
Mathjax always freezes my browser :(
 
Then I found out it's these badge things, so now I have to avoid answering PHP questions
Otherwise I'll get a badge in it
I don't want that.
It also says "StackExchange" right below where it says StackExchange in the url
Seriously guys? Seriously?
Nicholas Cage and his "You don't say" here
 
The "designers" should spend their time making the network faster
 
[Removed, a bit harsh]
 
lol
 
4:43 AM
@skullpatrol my biggest hatred is the secondary load!
Your browser swirls to tell you "loading" then the page just loads in crap to tell you more stuff is loading in
 
Yep
 
I miss stuff just popping up, rather than loads of Javascript libraries.... grr it annoys me
 
@AlexanderGruber Its complete crap.
 
Thanks for confirming @Sawarnik I was worried I was alone
@skullpatrol how can I enter a private chat with you
 
:D
@AlecTeal I don't like anything really. They have just enlarged the useless stuff.
@AlecTeal And no, third best answer wants it leave it that way :D
 
4:52 AM
I wish they'd split the SE stuff into "serious" and "not serious" parts
also answered my own question math.stackexchange.com/questions/789890/… kinda proud
 
5:52 AM
@Alec Teal if you click on anyone's avatar it will give you an option to open up a private room.
 
 
2 hours later…
8:03 AM
hello. I'm knew to the chat. Just looking around. Hope no one minds.
 
8:19 AM
Welcome @jonnytan999 :-)
 
8:34 AM
Greetings
 
Hello, @Chris'ssis. Are you working on any series?
 
@BalarkaSen On some infinite products.
 
Wait, let me activate ChatJax.
@Chris'ssis OK, now how in the heck did you reverse engineer that strange beast out?
 
@BalarkaSen I try to think like Ramanujan.
 
@Chris'ssis Give me a hint on that one.
How is that derived?
 
8:47 AM
I return in a few minutes.
 
@JackSchmidt Thank you for the advice.
 
 
1 hour later…
@N3buchadnezzar What, you don't love gratuitous use of hideous colours?
 
@DanielFischer I just miss the use of Comic Sans
Anyway thank you for answering my question about $\int_a^b |f(t)-x|\,\mahthrm{d}x$ =) Really appreciate it.
 
..
..
 
11:03 AM
@BalarkaSen Howdy.
 
I have a very important question how to pose it, in order to get noticed
 
hi @parth
 
Is there anyone interested in statistics?
 
@BalarkaSen How're you doing?
 
fine.
Ahoy @PedroTamaroff
 
11:13 AM
Good evening, @BalarkaSen. Good morning, @PedroTamaroff.
 
Greetings, @DanielFischer.
@PedroTamaroff Have you read about the Todd-Coxeter algorithm?
 
Morning people/
Sunday question: Mean = 32.00; Standard deviation = 6.48
What does one deviation below the mean, means?
 
Hallo. Not heard of it.
 
Hi! If $f$ is class $C^{1}$ and uniformly continuous, can we conclude that the derivative is bounded? I think the answer is no, but how can I construct an explicitly such function ?
 
@PedroTamaroff That thing is in Artin. I wonder if I should read it.
@Nico Well, take $f : (0, 1) \to (0, 1)$ s.t. $f(x) = x^{1/2}$
This is uniformly convergent, and is differentiable on the domain. But $f'(x) = 1/2x^{-1/2}$ is unbounded on $(0, 1)$
Hey, I am getting good at analysis lately!
 
11:32 AM
Can a function have an nonempty domain or nonempty codomain?
I can make nothing out of this from above.
@BalarkaSen
 
@Sawarnik You want to prove that a function cannot have empty domain/codomain using your definition, am I right?
 
But it can, $\varnothing \colon \varnothing \to \varnothing$ is a perfectly fine function.
 
@DanielFischer Yeah.
 
@BalarkaSen Uh, I meant can a function have an empty domain or empty codomain?
 
I think he meant "nontrivial".
@Sawarnik Sure.
 
11:36 AM
@BalarkaSen Then for each $a$, there exists an unique $b$ ... how does the $a$ and $b$ exist then?
 
They does not, obviously.
But there is no such restriction on the definition.
 
@BalarkaSen Then the above definition, I don't understand :/
 
@Sawarnik You are having trouble with abstractions, dude.
 
@BalarkaSen Hmmmmmmmmmm....mmmmmmmmmm......where exactly?
 
@Sawarnik Well, there is nothing in the definition about the existence of $a \in A$.
Suppose there is no $a \in A$ at all, i.e., $A = \{ \varnothing \}$
 
11:40 AM
@BalarkaSen Then there doesn't exist $b$ as well?
 
Yes, so $A\times B$ is null as well.
 
Oh.
 
@Sawarnik Yes. The functions is just null.
 
r9m
@Sawarnik kya ?
 
@BalarkaSen What if it has the whole real numbers as domain and empty range? Then I don't think there would be such a function? Because for each $a$, there won't be a $b$ ... right?
 
11:43 AM
@Sawarnik Not possible.
Yep.
 
Clears it up, how are you so clear on such things? :O
 
I am used to abstractions.
 
@BalarkaSen I am not convinced that is uniformly continuous.
 
@r9m Nothing, I was just thinking of killing you.
 
r9m
@Sawarnik why ?
 
11:46 AM
@r9m That bounty answer.
 
@KarlKronenfeld Ok, take $|x - y| \leq \varepsilon $
 
r9m
@Sawarnik what ...I corrected my mistake :)
 
@BalarkaSen But $\sqrt x+\sqrt y$ can be arbitrarily small.
 
@KarlKronenfeld So? $|\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{y}| \leq |\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}|$.
 
@r9m That correction is bigger and highly ugly than the original answer.
 
r9m
11:48 AM
@Sawarnik why ?? :( .. my mistake was uglier !
 
@BalarkaSen We have $\sqrt y-\sqrt x=\frac{y-x}{\sqrt y+\sqrt x}$, where $x< y$.
 
@KarlKronenfeld Think like this
$|\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{y}| \leq |\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{y}|^{1/2}|\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}|^{1/2} \leq |x-y| \leq \varepsilon$
So that gives you uniform convergence.
 
@r9m I have a question for you ...
 
@r9m Was the mistake in this step? $\le 4\sum\limits_{cyc} \sin \frac{C}{2} - 3$
 
@Karl I don't understand your arguments.
 
11:51 AM
@r9m $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left( \log\left(1+\frac{n}{n^2+1}\right)-\frac{n}{n^2+1}\right)$$
 
Better not to talk like 21st century chatters.
 
@BalarkaSen May I ask how? So that I can be one too :D :(
 
@Sawarnik The best place you can learn abstract nonsense from is algebra.
 
r9m
@Sawarnik yas .. terrible mistake
 
@BalarkaSen Then you might have to wait for 86 more years.
 
11:53 AM
@BalarkaSen Should be $\le \sqrt{|x-y|}$.
instead of $\le|x-y|$
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis nice :)
 
@KarlKronenfeld Aha.
$\leq |x-y|^{1/2} \leq \varepsilon^{1/2}$
Good catch.
 
@r9m I created it some minutes ago and it offers many surprises. ;)
 
sdf
If $K$ is a number field, and $v$ is a valuation on $K$, then $R_v$ the valuation ring of $v$ must contain $\mathbb{Z}$ - i guess this probably easy but I dont see it?
 
@BalarkaSen Not true.
 
11:54 AM
@KarlKronenfeld Dang.
 
r9m
@Chris'ssis cool :D ..
 
$\sqrt {1/100}=1/10$
 
r9m
@Sawarnik don't call it ugly ... I only used AM-GM
 
@KarlKronenfeld Yeah, I know. I think it's a result of thinking too much about $\Bbb N$
=P
 
@BalarkaSen I have a proof that it not uniformly convergent, but you can find it as long as you agree. :)
 
11:56 AM
@KarlKronenfeld Let me think my head around it.
 
@r9m Hmm, but I am still confused. The number was of form ax+by+cz, so isn't x+y+z greater? :O
@BalarkaSen :P
 
@Sawarnik Hell...
 
Let me think my head around it. Does that make sense?
 
r9m
@Sawarnik for that x,y,z need to be positive .. $(4\sin \frac{C}{2} -1 )$ need not be positive :P
 
Usually people say let me wrap my head around it..
 
12:00 PM
@robjohn the series above is pretty interesting. It put me down for a while.
 
They does not, obviously. That was also wrong, it should be they do not. :P
 
r9m
@Sawarnik I'll have to take my bro to swimming class .. bbl :)
 
@r9m Uh ok. :)
 
you could say you want to wrap your thoughts around it...
 
@Sawarnik I can't think in this crowd. puts @Sawarnik on ignore
 
12:03 PM
:-O
 
@BalarkaSen Your problem :P
Hmm, but I was only .. . .. I shouldn't say more or I will be on permanent ignore.
 
Shhh...his highness is thinking :-)
2
over 9,000 hours later...
 
Shhh... indeed.
@skullpatrol Do you believe in IQs and intelligence?
 
not really
 
Then everyone have equal intellegence?
@r9m Hmm, I see. But now who will verify your new answer!
 
12:08 PM
at some level, yes
 
@Karl let's assume uniform convergence.
that means for each $\epsilon$ there exists a $\delta$ s.t. $|x-y| < \delta$ implies $|\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{y}| < \epsilon$
 
@Sawarnik do you?
 
@skullpatrol But research tells it depends on how much brain you have at certain places or sort of.
@skullpatrol I would like to.
His Highness thought something.
 
@Sawarnik do you know what Q stands for?
 
@skullpatrol Quotient.
 
12:11 PM
@Sawarnik what is in the denominator?
 
?
 
age
 
So?
 
test score divided by age = IQ
 
So what?
Ok, leave it.
We are disturbing him in his thinking.
 
12:14 PM
:D
 
@Karl Applying the standard trick of $y = x + \delta/2$, thus $|\sqrt{x} - \sqrt{x + \delta/2}| < \epsilon$. But if we choose $x$ to be something very small in $(0, 1)$, then this is $|\sqrt{x} - \sqrt{x + \delta/2}| < \sqrt{\delta/2}$. But a proper choice of $\delta$ can satisfy the inequality, so this idea was lame. What am I missing?
@Sawarnik Not really. I really did ignore you this time.
 
Hmm.
 
Or probably not.
 
Ah, you don't believe.
You must believe. :P
 
Is it that analysis can't be done if we don't believe in analysis?
=P
 
12:28 PM
I used the Archimedian property in a key step.
 
@KarlKronenfeld Uh-huh. Let's see.
 
@skullpatrol Howdy, pal!
 
@ParthKohli hi pal :-)
wazzup?
 
@Karl I can't figure it out.
 
12:49 PM
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{n}{n^2+1}- \log\left(1+\frac{n}{n^2+1}\right)\right) \approx 0.3200500397586894$$
 
1:00 PM
Its closed form $$\log\left(\sinh(\pi) \operatorname{sech}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\pi\right)\right)-\psi(1+i)$$
@DanielFischer are you used to the type of series I posted above? In case you have some ideas on it, pls let me know.
 
@Chris'ssis I was out at the observatory last night. I just woke up. I will take a look.
 
@robjohn hehe, nice. I never was at an observatory. :-)
 
I am looking to prove that if $f$ is a complex analytic function (holomorphic) on some domain $D$, and $|f(z)|=1 \ \forall \ z \in D$. Then $f$ must be constant
I am always confused what theorem to apply / use to prove these types of questions.
 
@N3buchadnezzar Open mapping theorem, maximum modulus principle.
 
1:04 PM
My idea was to use the maximum principle, if $f$ is a bounded continous function then the maximum of $D$ has to lie on the boundary of $D$.
 
@robjohn Yesterday I posted on main that $\log(\cosh(x))$ integral we thought about last days. Here math.stackexchange.com/questions/789321/…
 
@Chris'ssis No, that's generally not my cup of tea. I'm not particularly good at it, too.
 
@DanielFischer OK
 
@DanielFischer I think I got an argument for it. Please look over my "proof" / thoughts.
 
@BalarkaSen That was fun. It is actually uniformly continuous (though not uniformly convergent, which we both like to mistakenly write). Just set $\delta=\epsilon^2$
 
1:11 PM
@N3buchadnezzar Where do I find them?
 
The open mapping theorem states that if U is a domain of the complex plane C and f : U → C is a non-constant holomorphic function, then f is an open map. Eg from the Rieman mapping theoren there exists a one-to-one mapping $T$ from $D$ onto $C^*$, the unit disk. But since $|z|=1$, such a mapping can not exists.
 
@N3buchadnezzar The Riemann mapping theorem has no place in this argument.
 
I just choose the unit disk, but I guess any domain is applicable. No matter what the mapping can not be one to one
 
@N3buchadnezzar There is nothing requiring anything one-to-one. We have a holomorphic $f$ on the domain $D$, and we want to show it is constant. Under the assumption that it is not constant, we don't have any one-to-one guarantee. All we have is that $f$ would be an open mapping. In particular, $f(D)$ would be open.
 
@Chris'ssis what a lot of work to put into such a wrong answer.
 
1:21 PM
@robjohn Indeed. When I firstly saw it I was about to say "woooowwww", but just in the first second ...
 
@Chris'ssis I evaluated it numerically with Mma, but then realized that easily, it is less than 1.
 
@robjohn I saw your answer in a comment.
 
1:38 PM
Hi
I have this form:
(1-a+b-c)^K ; where K is positive integers greater than zero
could you tell me how to represent this using multinomial
Thanks
 
hit
1:51 PM
/questions/790210/solution-to-inverse-trig-function-decimals
 
@DanielFischer
 
@PedroTamaroff ?
 
@DanielFischer Hello there!
 
Hello too.
 
I was trying to see if someone could help me make a combinatorial argument.
 
1:57 PM
Well ... maybe.
 
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/787710/showing-that-pim-n-pim-ast-pin-for-n-dimensional-manifolds-m

Was just offered up a 100 bounty for anyone interested :)
 
Let $\binom nk_q$ be the Gaussian $q$-binomial. Then it is known this counts the $k$ dimensional subspaces of an $n$ dimensional vector space over $\Bbb F_q$, @Daniel.
 

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