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2:00 PM
Also I misread that integral on the star board, I thought it said $\sin(x^3)$ and I've been banging my head on the keyboard all morning
 
banging your head on the keyboard! How would you do the correct version though?
 
@molikto "Then $A/\mathfrak{a}$ is a ring".
 
@Sawarnik Still don't know yet but at least it feels possible now
 
@MickLH "my head" meaning the head of your company...?
 
@MickLH I see you are a game developer. Do you have something to interest me?
 
2:04 PM
see my profile please
 
@ParthKohli No I mean literally my physical human form
My brain specifically (these long tails protruding from it, I usually call them fingers), directly against the keyboard
 
Is your keyboard alright?
 
:14551531 Yeah that would turn out awkward when we realized it was x squared, not cubed hahaha
 
Mick, give me some of your games please! Do I have to pay money?
 
I don't think you'd like my games, I normally do backend stuff
:14551540 Hmm.. maybe I'm a pervert but I took it to mean sexual intercourse...
 
2:08 PM
@MickLH No problem, we're alright with all kinds of games.
@MickLH same
 
Well here's the last thing I did, it's silly: szifler.com/gdsegj
 
@MickLH nice! I've played a similar game on mobile.
 
I didnt understand the goal :/
 
It's a geometry / physics puzzle game
You have to touch all the green squares except one
You can pick any one to exclude, and the ball has to come to rest afterwards
It gets harder as you go because geometrically there are more obstacles to work around, and you always only have the potential energy you can store in gravity available
 
I just made it bounce
 
2:13 PM
The user interface and design can be improved though..
 
how to remove a block?
 
@DanielFischer isn't factor ring defined for all rings?
 
@ParthKohli There's a list of tools in the corner, I wouldn't waste so much time on that game lol
 
@molikto $\mathfrak{a}$ is a left ideal, for a factor ring, you'd need a two-sided ideal.
 
@MickLH Then your most awesome creation?
 
2:15 PM
@Sawarnik This is where all my time and research goes: github.com/micklh/MagicWorks
 
clone all the projects
 
I'm coming to the end of a month long commit lol
I have a lot more fun with the math, I'm constantly trying to come up with easier to evaluate approximations of everything
 
@DanielFischer I think just above Lang said that "let "
@DanielFischer I think just above Lang said that "let a be a two sided ideal"?
 
@molikto Not in my edition (third).
 
Ok.... mine is revised third. I think if a is two sided ideal. then R is not necessary commutative?
 
2:24 PM
@molikto Could be that it was changed, and that part was forgotten to be updated.
 
@Chris'ssis Anything new on NT lately? Something rather non-elementary?
 
@BalarkaSen Do you happen to know a sharp bound on $$\sum_{k=1}^N \mu(k)\left(\left(\frac{N}{k}\right)^2 - \left\lfloor \frac{N}{k}\right\rfloor^2\right)\,?$$
 
@DanielFischer Can't think of anything sharp, no.
But some loose ones are easily obtained.
By, for example, partial summation.
 
@BalarkaSen Can you prove $O(N)$?
($O(N\log N)$ is trivial)
 
@DanielFischer Do you have a proof of that?
 
2:35 PM
Of what? $O(N)$? No, I'm trying to think of a proof every now and then, but some detail always gets in the way.
 
I see.
I'd try if there was, I dunno, a less freaking thing instead of that.
=P
 
Reduce::rhyp: Warning: Reduce assumed the Riemann hypothesis in order to prove the solution set found is complete. >>
 
In any case, it's not hard to show that $$\left | \sum_{k\leq N} \mu(k)\left(\left(\frac{N}{k}\right) - \left\lfloor \frac{N}{k}\right\rfloor\right) \right |$$ is $O(N)$
Bu that is not going to help.
Or is it?
 
I don't think so, @BalarkaSen.
 
You're probably right.
 
2:40 PM
@BalarkaSen When is your exams starting?
 
@Sawarnik 7th.
 
A long way to go still :/ :(
 
@DanielFischer Well, there are well-known very tight lower bounds/asymptotics on $\sum_{k\leq N} \varphi(k)$
They might help.
 
YES! my calculator solves PolyGamma somewhat symbolically :)
 
They might, @BalarkaSen. Let's see what asymptotics wikipedia lists.
 
2:45 PM
@DanielFischer In fact, by Perron, I get something like $3/\pi^2 x^2$
@DanielFischer I don't trust wiki in these matters.
I found a lot of largely incorrect asymptotics ones in wiki.
 
@BalarkaSen You can usually check either yourself, or see what references they list. Overall, in matters mathematical, wikipedia is somewhat trustworthy, unlike in matters conspiracy theoretical.
 
Yeah, sometimes they don't refer to things at all.
Mathworld is far better.
But wiki agrees with my estimates, it seems.
And the refer to Walfisz.
The error term is a bit clunkier through.
$$O(n\log(n)^{2/3}\log\log(n)^{4/3})$$
An easy estimate is $O(n)$
But better ones can be found through RH at any rate, even better than this.
 
Okay, if $O(n(\log n)^{2/3}(\log\log n)^{4/3})$ is the best currently known, I need not be ashamed of not finding a proof of $O(n)$ ;)
 
=P
But you can do that with RH, I bet, if your estimate does not turn out to be false.
 
Well, but proving RH is a bitch. I'll not do that this weekend.
 
2:56 PM
Who asked you to prove RH? Just assume RH and apply Perron, man.
 
@robjohn u there
 
@PedroTamaroff Mitra said he did not like Mendelson.
 
@BalarkaSen Mathworld also contains a lot of error.
 
@Sawarnik Sometimes, yes.
But at least I didn't see any.
 
@BalarkaSen Find a factor between $1000$ and $5000$ of the number $$2^{33}-2^{19}-2^{17}-1$$
 
3:02 PM
@BalarkaSen I have seen. Sent a request to be corrected but still incorrect.
 
@Chris'ssis Nah, no elementary NT today. You have made me do some already.
 
@Chris'ssis When did your interest turned towards NT?
 
@Sawarnik I'm working right now on some intregrals. :-)))
(btw)
 
OK. =)
But that doesn't explain your interest towards ENT.
 
@BalarkaSen I don't like trains.
 
3:09 PM
Hahaha. He does not like point-set topo at all.
=P
 
I just looked at your problem.
 
@BalarkaSen I've always been interested in NT, but I didn't approach, let's say, some very hard things there although once in a while I did some.
 
Which one?
 
The one about the circle. I am guessing you identify $(0,1)$ and $(0,-1)$ to get a neutral element yes?
Else you have no neutral element.
 
@PedroTamaroff (0, 1) is neutral element.
Which I also like to call "identity element"
=P
 
3:12 PM
@Danny yes?
 
What is the inverse of $(0,-1)$?
 
$(0, 1)$
 
Ooops
 
Surprise.
=)
 
3:13 PM
You are correct.
Dis is weird
 
@robjohn i dont see how $E[E[X \vert Y]] = \sum_y E[X \vert Y =y]P\{Y =y\}$ could u explain?
 
Also, how do I sum $(1,0)$ and $(-1,0)$?
Joining them intersects the $x$ axis everywhere.
 
Join lines.
@PedroTamaroff WAT?
Ahahah
 
@robjohn What does it mean that I am removed along with my 50 points vanishing? ??
 
@robjohn maybe i can write it on the forum and u can answer there if u have time
so i can read it slowly
 
3:15 PM
@Danny That looks pretty much like the definition
 
@PedroTamaroff I am not sure if we are both thinking about the same thing
 
@BalarkaSen Well yes, joining $(1,0)$ and $(-1,0)$ gives $[-1,1]$.
@BalarkaSen Isn't addition defined by joining and projecting through the $(1,0)$ to the circle through the intersection with the $x$-axis?
 
Didn't I mention about removing those two points there?
 
Oh, I didn't know that.
 
@Sawarnik you are not removed... you are still here. Perhaps you are seeing that someone else was removed and you've lost the 50 points they gave you,
 
3:16 PM
@PedroTamaroff Nope. Projection through $(0, 1)$
 
@BalarkaSen That, $(0,1)$.
I just mixed my coords.
The north pole.
 
Surprise.
=)
 
Nah, man. You're not using it correclty.
 
So nothing weird.
@PedroTamaroff Using what?
 
Well, how do you sum two points at the same height?
The line will never cross the $x$-axis.
It will be parallel to it.
 
3:18 PM
In the projective sense, they do.
At the point $\{\pm \infty\}$
So they'd be inverses to each other.
i.e., the north pole is the point at infinity.
 
You're considering $(S^1\smallsetminus \{(-1,0),(0,1)\})\cup \{\pm\infty\}$?
 
Of course.
Riemann sphere in $\Bbb R^2$
 
Still, you have a problem with $(0,1)$ and $(0,-1)$.
You have to identify those points or something.
 
@PedroTamaroff Umm, what problem?
One is absorbing element another is identity.
 
3:20 PM
There is no such thing as an absorbing element in a group!
What are you talking about...?
Didn't you say you wanted to make this into a group?
 
@robjohn If a user is removed the points I gained from him is removed, this is unfair?
 
@Sawarnik that?
 
@PedroTamaroff Wait, I am not thinking straight.
 
Yes!
 
Let me draw it out.
 
3:21 PM
@Sawarnik why is it unfair? It happens to everyone.
 
Ok then. :[
 
@PedroTamaroff North pole is identity. OK.
 
@BalarkaSen Right.
 
Doesn't seem so.
=P
 
But you cannot sum anything to anything to get the north pole.
 
3:23 PM
Elaborate.
 
Well, given a point $x$ in $S^1$, what is the point $x'$ for which $x+x'=e$?
 
You have to sum to inverse elements to get north pole, of course.
@PedroTamaroff $(a, b) + (-a, b) = e$
 
@BalarkaSen But the inverse of the north pole is not itself.
 
Uh?
 
The inverse of the $1$ must always be the $1$, uniquely.
 
3:26 PM
@PedroTamaroff Of course it is!
 
$(0,1)+(0,-1)=(0,-1)$.
 
@PedroTamaroff Nope.
tis $(0, -1)$
 
Yes, yes.
 
=P
Get a pen and paper.
You can't think everything all by your head, ya know.
 
Every element of your group is idempotent.
 
3:28 PM
False.
 
How do you sum a point to itself...?
 
I defined doubling by drawing tangents.
 
@PedroTamaroff I mentioned it.
 
@BalarkaSen I didn't read everything, just that it was $S^1$ with sum by joining lines.
 
3:29 PM
@PedroTamaroff OK. $(x, y)$. Double the point by drawing a tangent at that point and then map back to the circle.
 
Drawing tangents to the point? Did you check it goes well with the other operation?
 
Dis is doubling.
 
Yes, I got it.
 
@PedroTamaroff Yep.
 
@BalarkaSen It seems every nonidentity element has infinite order then?
In fact repeated addition gets you closer and closer to the removed points.
 
3:31 PM
@PedroTamaroff Yes.
@PedroTamaroff Yes!
That's how you approximate $\sqrt{2}$ very closely by my method.
But this is a dumb application.
 
@BalarkaSen What if you define $x+x=x$ for any $x$? Does that fuck up addition?
 
Have to check.
Well, additions not continuous anymore.
I can't see anything that serious.
 
What's the topology here?
 
@Danny Does that make sense?
 
@PedroTamaroff That's upto you to define, not me.
=)
 
3:38 PM
@BalarkaSen You just said "additions not continuous anymore."
 
Define something appropriate that'd show continuity.
I am not going into formalities.
 
I don't see what's the topology, that's why I am asking.
You're saying "addition is no longer continuous". so you have some topology in mind.
 
Well, yeah.
But I'd rather stick up with the algebraic properties.
 
And did you get anything out of this?
Could you find say subgroups of whatever?
 
Well, $\Bbb R^\times$ is not an interesting structure. =(
 
3:43 PM
Did you get any isomorphism $\simeq\Bbb R^\times$?
Proof?
 
I have mentioned my intuition before (i.e., affine group with underlying space being a line minus a point) and Mike stabbed with one-dimentional lie groups.
End of the game.
 
So no isomorphism.
 
Well, it is isomorphic to $\Bbb R^\times$
 
Proof?
 
Ask Mike. I don't understand lie algebras.
 
3:47 PM
Well, $(0,-1)$ plays the role of $-1$.
Right, that's the iso there.
 
But even if I did, that'd be stabbing an ant with a truck.
@PedroTamaroff Yes.
 
@BalarkaSen Nah, man.
Think about it for a second.
 
I just get intuitions.
 
I don't totally buy it though.
 
The removed point definitely plays an important role here.
Adding them gives the whole base set.
 
3:49 PM
can someone help me in deformation lemma ?math.stackexchange.com/questions/721961/deformation-theorem
 
This almost surely means something.
 
Intuitively, the positive elements should be the upper arc and the negative elements the lower arc.
 
Yep. No. You mean left and right arcs.
 
But in $\Bbb R^\times$ you have three points of "divergence".
Oh, no. Wait.
You have $0$, like $(1/2)^n\to 0$.
 
@PedroTamaroff Yes.
 
3:50 PM
You have $+\infty$, say $n!\to +\infty$.
 
Continuity.
 
Though you cannot get to $-\infty$.
 
Ah. Why?
 
@BalarkaSen Oh, well you can sorry. I was thinking about simple powers.
Yes.
So you have three divergence points in $\Bbb R^\times%$.
How many are there in your group?
 
Seems $2$ at first sight.
 
3:53 PM
You have the removed points.
 
Does point an infinity counts?
 
Right, that's why I don't see why it should be $\Bbb R^\times$ at first sight.
 
@PedroTamaroff I didn't think about that.
 
Can you find a sequence of points such that $\sum a_i\to \rm point\; at\;\infty$?
 
I have to think.
Seems unlikely though.
 
3:55 PM
@BalarkaSen But how do you sum something to that point at $\infty$?
 
The point at infinity is north pole, you realize that right?
 
Oh, sorry.
Right.
I am not used to projective stuff.
Still, that would be the $1$ in $\Bbb R^\times$.
 
Yes.
Wait.
 
I am not really convinced it is $\Bbb R^\times$:
 
No $0$ in multiplicative $\Bbb R$
 
3:57 PM
@BalarkaSen Yes, I know that.
 
So how do you get three points of divergence?
 
But is is a "hole".
$+\infty$ and $-\infty$ are not there either.
 
@PedroTamaroff I am not really used to continuity stuff.
Right.
 
@BalarkaSen Well, you have sequences in $\Bbb R^\times$ for which $\prod a_n\to 0$.
 
Yes, I understand that.
 
3:58 PM
So those diverge.
 
My bad.
The problem is that $0$ has no interpretation in my base set.
 
What the "base set"?
 
$S^1 \setminus \{(1, 0), (-1, 0)\} \cup \{\pm \infty\}$
 
Oh, derp.
I thought you meant something else that "underlying set".
 
I'm a little obsessed today with the realization that the intermediate value theorem can actually be thought of as a theorem about homotopy, and that homotopy is the only real way to extend it to higher dimensions.
 
4:02 PM
Nice talking to you, @Pedro, but now I have to run. I will come back at this though.
Seems you are almost likely correct.
Bye for now.
 
Byes-
@ThomasAndrews I saw your answer the other day.
Was impressed.
 
It seems like a lovely motivation for homotopy, but I'd never seen it.
 
4:20 PM
@ParthKohli Looks like Alx H is set for another 100!
Oh out! England doomded now unless Morgan and Buttler produce an Halinnings.
 
@Danny I think my answer is essentially the way to think about the answer, but I didn't want to get into the precise meaning thread that Did would pose. If he gives an answer, it will probably be correct, but it may be difficult to understand.
Essentially $X\mathrm{E}[Y|X]=\mathrm{E}[XY|X]$ because $X$ is fixed during the evaluation of the expectation and expectation is linear.
 
@robjohn thanks rob Iam back in a while...iam a bit of hurry ...
 
4:53 PM
@Pedro OK, tell me how you reach $-\infty$ in $\Bbb R^\times$
 
@BalarkaSen $-1\times 2\times 3\times\cdots$?
 
OK =)
My bad.
Then do you think $\Bbb R^+$ under mult might be it?
 
@BalarkaSen I don't think so, no.
$\Bbb R^+$ has no involutions.
 
$${{\sin \left(\left(e^{z}-1\right)\,\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }{{{\Gamma^2
\left(n+1\right)\,\left(1-e^{z}\right)^{n}}\over{n!\,\Gamma\left(n+2
\right)}}}\right)\,\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }{{{\Gamma^2\left(n+{{1}\over{
2}}\right)\,\left(\sin \left(\left(e^{z}-1\right)\,\sum_{n=0}^{
\infty }{{{\Gamma^2\left(n+1\right)\,\left(1-e^{z}\right)^{n}}\over{
n!\,\Gamma\left(n+2\right)}}}\right)\right)^{2\,n}}\over{n!\,
\Gamma\left(n+{{3}\over{2}}\right)}}}}\over{2\,\sqrt{\pi}}}$$
 
That expression makes me want to go cry into a beer. @MickLH
 
5:02 PM
WHAT THE ACTUAL FUCK.
Sorry.
 
Guys Guys!
It has a wonderful closed form
(Don't kill me) $... = z$
 
Yeah, just a gut reaction. @MickLH :)
 
It's made up.
Not interesting. =/
 
My algebra program spit that out at me
I thought I'd share the fun :D
 
Your algebra programme is doing acid.
=D
 
5:04 PM
I'm sure you can guess to within 0.3% how hard I shit myself, hypergeometrigsponentialblahblah thank god for Mathematica
Oops, forgot to mention it's for $-2\pi \leq x \leq 2\pi$ only
 
Nevermind.
Yes, no involution.
Uh, what's the involution here? I can't see any. (Sorry, I think it's the temperature here that is frying my brain.)
Oh.
You mean $(0, -1) + (0, -1)$?
 
In $\Bbb R^\times$ you have $(-1)^2=1$.
 
Yes, yes.
Good catch.
 
5:19 PM
Yes, in your group $(0,-1)^2=1$.
 
So, tell me, do you like de la group of mine? =)
 
Well, I don't fully understand it yet.
 
5:42 PM
@FernandoMartin Morning.
 
sup of what?
 
@FernandoMartin How did it go yesterday?
 
Pretty cool
 
Le tochi got hammered yas?
 
5:44 PM
We all did
 
Good, good.
On Tuesday we'll make a reservation for next Friday.
@FernandoMartin Have you done any problems from Atiyah?
 
The com. alg. doom?
 
@BalarkaSen Yes.
 
I've been thinking about the one Alicia gave us
 
5:46 PM
Sheesh.
 
Still haven't solved it
 
@FernandoMartin What was her problem?
 
$\langle x^2, y^2,xy\rangle$ can't be generated with only 2 elems
(in $K[x,y]$)
 
@FernandoMartin Oh.
 
What is the little dot there?
 
5:47 PM
@BalarkaSen It should be a comma.
You can just call out the typo =P
 
Ah.
Interesting problem.
 
YAS.
@FernandoMartin I will give it a shot now.
Let's see what I get.
@FernandoMartin Did you try anything?
 
Well, I realized that Bézout's identity doesn't hold for several variables
 
Hehe, true. =)
$(x,y)=1$; but if $xf(x,y)+y g(x,y)=1$, eval at $(0,0)$ gives $0=1$.
 
$(x,y)$ means GCD?
 
5:53 PM
Yas.
 
Right.
 
So far I will write $$\eqalign{
& {\alpha _1}f + {\alpha _2}g = {x^2} \cr
& {\beta _1}f + {\beta _2}g = {y^2} \cr
& {\gamma _1}f + {\gamma _2}g = xy \cr} $$
And differentiate like it's the end of the world.
 
Stop linking to youtube gulf and do the math.
 
WINWINWINWINWIWNIWNIWNIWNWINIWNINWIWNINWINW
 
OK, $\langle x^2, y^2,xy\rangle$ has dim 3, considering the deg-2 part.
 
5:59 PM
What does "dim 3" mean?
 
Now think about $\langle p, q \rangle$
@PedroTamaroff DIM = DIMENSION
 
Thanks Captain.
What does "dimension 3" mean?
 
I give up.
I gotta go, you do the math.
Byes!
 

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