@terdon Good point. and 'hopefully' is very much accepted as a sentence modifier now. But there's something special about 'literally'. Having it be an intensifier seems like a classic case of misinterpreted cargo-cult use. Someone heard someone else use 'literally' literally, but they didn't know what 'literally' meant and interpreted it as 'really'. But the canonical meaning of 'literally' is 'verbatim' or 'truthfully despite seeming hyperbole'.
wait...that's not my point, but not what I don't think.
Nevertheless, if that's the way it goes, our grandchildren will simply use it to mean figuratively. And, presumably, some other word will be co-opted to mean literally.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 not if the literal meaning of literal is literal. It doesn't mean hypoerbole when used figuratively, it means 'really'. What comes after is already recognized as hyperbole
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 ? it's about the use of 'literally' not the use of hyperbole, or figures of any kind. Especially since the word 'literally' is intended to mark things as non-figurative.
@terdon Right, and to be computery about it, that's what gets stuck in our craw, that a term that is being used to state that something should be taken at face value, that term could be used to take something -not- at face value, and so you don't know which one to take.
> Very was originally used to indicate that something was true or real, as in the phrase ‘he was a veri prophett’ in William Tyndale’s Bible of 1526. This meaning, though less fashionable now, is still used, and its semantic root is apparent in words like verity, veracity, and verify. Only later did people start using the word as an intensifier.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 Nobody says "he soothingly exploded" either. The problem is about the specific use of the word literally. If your example doesn't use that word, it isn't really relevant.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 That's all my point was. It sounded like you were saying that 'literally' - 'hyperbolically' and I was saying that it is meant only as an intensifier. Which is just not necessary in practice because an existing hyperbole is pretty recognizable and doesn't need intensifying.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 Yep. That's a great counter example, and that is indeed what I think is happening with literally. But since we're of an age to have learned the word to mean A, it is very strange for us that it is now used to mean -A.
@terdon But just because language changes, doesn't mean that all changes are useful/good/practical/etc etc. It's just an observation (descriptive) that language changes, that's all.
> The first … means “in a literal manner; word for word”: the passage was translated literally. The second … means “in a literal way”: some people interpret the Bible literally.
> The third … could be defined “actually” or “really” and is used to add emphasis. It seems to be of literary origin. […] The purpose of the adverb in [these] instances is to add emphasis to the following word or phrase, which is intended in a literal sense. The [fourth,] hyperbolic use comes from placing the same intensifier in front of some figurative word or phrase which cannot be taken literally.
@Mitch Of course not. Although I'd argue that attempting to define them as either good or bad is the wrong approach. Change is change, there's no better or worse, really. But yes, I agree that I personally find some changes "bad" and would probably convince myself I have valid and rational reasons. I'd still be wrong.
And had I been born after the change, I'm sure I'd have found it good. As I have with all the changes that occurred before my time since those are the language as I know it.
@Mitch Is the misuse of the apostrophe in the non-possesive it's a good or bad change?
It introduces ambiguity where there was none. It introduces an ugly contraction instead of the infinitely better it is and breaks the general rule that apostrophe + s makes a possessive.
Grammarians were railing against it when it was first introduced. Using all sorts of (valid) arguments about "good" or "bad". They were still wrong in attempting to apply a value to change.
@terdon Apostrophes are almost always used in contractions, and pronouns are almost never rendered possessive with the apostrophe s convention or pluralized with just an s, so making "it's" strictly a contraction follows an odd sort of logic where the mark is freed up for a purpose it couldn't normally have.
@Tonepoet I wonder, though, how useful it is to distinguish between it's and its in writing. We don't distinguish it in speech and it's not usually a problem.
@terdon And I recollect reading an answer regarding one of the objections (I forgot which one). Arguing that it's shouldn't exist because 'tis exists as a contraction vaguely misses the point of the apostrophe in contractions, which is to represent elision.
@Tonepoet Sure, but when it was first introduced, prescriptivist grammarians were railing against it as a deformation of the language. There was a great Q&A here about that. Let me see if I can find it.
Hmm. This is one part of the story and it answers your point about pronouns:
Professor David Crystal explains it in his book The Fight for English: How language pundits ate, shot, and left (Crystal 2006), pp. 134-135:
Its is just as possessive as cat's, but it doesn't have an apostrophe. Why not? Because the printers and grammarians [of the nineteenth century - Alex B...
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 I want a cross linguistic analysis. There's nothing special about English here. All modern European languages have the 'literal' + adv word
> Some, very improperly, use it's instead of 'tis, for the contraction of it is: and hence many profess to omit the apostrophe in the possessive case it's, lest it should be confounded with a word, that ought never to occur.
@Mitch It is, but it is an example of a change that (I think) most "educated" people would have objected to at the time. You could make a very valid case for its being a "bad" change. And that's why I used it to illustrate my claim that "good" and "bad" are not really relevant adjectives when discussing language evolution.
@Tonepoet no doubt. and there's some of the same prescriptive/descriptive. Just most of the issues aren't in the same semantic-drift area. Also it is more about orthography which is only quasi-linguistic. Interesting sure but a whole other set of issues.
The non-literal literally doesn't have any of the 'zombie rule' problems that other prescriptivist problems have.
@terdon if we want to slip into that conversation... sure one can always come up with less judgmental or less elitist vocabulary than good/bad/incorrect/wrong/dumb, but they might end up being weasel words attached to the same feeling.
uncommon, non-standard, dialectal, unofficial, not in the style guide, etc etc
@Tonepoet made up rules for language patterns that never existed or were only suggestions, are continuously debunked, but then somehow keep coming back like zombies
like ending a sentence with a preposition (phrasal verbs provide many instances where a preposition comes at the end, splitting infinitives is entirely OK but somehow the New Yorker has an autocorrect that ruins the legibility of a sentence)
I know. But this is still a knee-jerk reaction to change. And, I stress, I share it. I absolutely hate this use of literally. But I know I will have to accept it.
@Mitch The preposition thing has some validity. When so-called prepositions are "deferred" or left "dangling" it usually seems to be as a result of some form of ellipsis or an adverbial use. It's usually just as awkward to end a declarative statement with a noun/preposition combination as it is to end a sentence with a conjunction.
If you're saying "I have published a couple books" but in reality, you are in the process of writing a screen play and have three very long articles, then you're exaggerating.
But if you have published exactly 2 books, then you're being literal.
These are two ways of communicating, one to give a vague impression, one to pass on data.
To continue, those two variants (and the continuum between) can be described using terms like literal figurative etc. Language can only be described using language.
@englishstudent It might be correct, but I'd disagree as a matter of what is what. Political rhetoric often uses weasel words, in order to claim plausible deniability, or to be able to say "I wasn't totally wrong because there was doubt"
@englishstudent Wow, what interesting questions. I usually listen to music only in the car, on the radio. And I flip among many stations (mostly classic rock) but pop/R&B/hp-hop or news when others are there (depending on the audience). Sometimes I'll listen to records I had when I was younger on youtube.
@Mitch Is that really the case? I know people try to render the word rhetoric ineffective through the use of grammatical diminutives, but that's more of a function of the diminutive than the word rhetoric itself.
@Tonepoet I don't have it now. I will let you know though. I just wanted to know if they were similar enough. And Mitch's "plausible deniability" comment is pretty good too.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 Hello Mr Aruba. Nice to see you again. Recently I watched a drama series and they went to Aruba for honeymoon in it. It's Hindsight (2015) from VH1, lol.
@Tonepoet They also need to consider removing downvotes altogether, lol.
@Tonepoet You really put full stops for your abbreviations, lol.
@JasonBourne Of course I do. You won't find a post of my own that lacks them, and I only exercise editorial restraint on the matter because I'd probably be overruled.
@JasonBourne It's funny that you refer to me as "Mr Aruba" as if my choice of vacation destination is some kind of defining characteristic more important than my choice of country of residence or my cult Lego hobby.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 Hello! Your ping summoned me. Anyway, I was really disappointed because after Season 1 of Hindsight, there was a change of management at VH1 and they decided to scrap Season 2, so I am left without a good ending.
@tchrist If I had a bit of time, I'd attempt an answer for your PoS Q on here - but I'm pretty strapped. I could give you some thoughts on chat if you're interested in some thoughts, though ... (and maybe give an answer a bit later, when I have some time)
@AraucariaMan Not completely sure about it being a verb rather than an adjective in running water like it is in running (the) bulls transitively. I guess some middle voice thing. But it passes the predicate test. :)
I think that the people who say his is sexist are the real sexists, because when one doesn't care about sex anymore, using his is just a linguistic convention and not a form of discrimination.
@tchrist Ah, well in running the bulls I kinda suppose that the bulls is the object of running, which is the head of the VP. In running water the verb is a modifier of the noun bulls ... That's what I reckon, anyhow.
@tchrist But in relation to your larger question, there are grammarians such as Bas Aarts who've been studying intersective gradience. They point out that words in one PoS category shade into others in terms of having similar syntactic properties. ...
... However, he tentatively (as I remember) decides that words may edge towards another category, but then if they become more like one category than the other they either split (so there are two words) or otherwise pop out the other side ...
...into another category.
@tchrist There are many grammarians such as Pullum, who would say that words are either one category or another. An element can't be lead and gold at the same time. However, there are problematic examples. Some of these just don't fit easily into a PoS category. No big shakes there. You can just say that some words have their own PoS categories--or that the categorisation is very difficult but that that doesn't mean that they are members of more than one category. It'sjust difficult to decide..
@tchrist (almost finished ...) However, as Pulum often notes, the truth about language is raely pure and never simple. This is one example in which it (probably) isn't pure.
@tchrist A straightforward test for verbhood is understood to be taking direct objects. Very few grammarians (who belive in PoS) debate this. However, another seemingly failsafe test for nounhood is being the head o a phrase that takes determiners. So one construction which Fs this all up is this one here.
@Mr.ShinyandNew安宇 That's an interesting thought, and it might have more merit than you credit it. Most people just live wherever their fortunes place them, but vacations are deliberately chosen visitations. It's not unimaginable that somebody would rather live where they vacation than where they actually live, and although it is not guaranteed, it may even be likely.
@JasonBourne I think the TV ads are crazy where the guy lathers up his face and head and with one swipe of the razor a completely clean swath of hairlessness is tracked over the scalp or chin
@tchrist Huddleston and Pullum put this down to the language being in transition. However, this really means that this construction doesn't easily fit their model of the language. Nonetheless, they recognise this whilst trying to excuse it (you don't write grammar without an explanation/description in the same way you don't write a dictionary without an attempt at a meaning). What is happening there is that H/P are acknowledgeing that the facts of the language don't easily fit their model ...e
@tchrist But it's hard to argue that in There's to be no blurring of PoS categories that blurring is not a verb or is not a noun. We can only decide because of our theoretical predispositions (at the moment - because someone may notice or coe up with much more decisive evidence). (Phew, back to my work/beer!)
The King's English has 19 whole pages worth of text regarding the difference between shall and will. Granted, the pages in the book are small, but still.
@Cerberus "The usual protest must be made, to be treated no doubt with the usual disregard. The difficulty is that some French, Latin and other words are now also English, though the fiction that they are not is still kept up by italics and (with French words) conscientious efforts at pronunciation." – The King's English, third edition, by H.W. and F.G. Fowler.
@Cerberus Remilia and Flandre Scarlet are young looking vampire sisters in the Touhou Project series of video games. Remillia is the headmistress of the scarlet devil mansion, the elder sister by five years (which is a proportionally small number given that she's 500 years old), and the more refined of the two characters sipping on the tea in that image.
Out of the two of us, I would suppose I have my wits about me less often, so despite their apparent similarities, I'd liken myself to Flandere. Naturally this makes tchrist the perfectly elegant head maid Sakuya Izayoi and, well...
@JasonBourne That might be because it's known by different names judging from the Wikipedia article. I think Purnima might be the more customary word around these parts. Also, I'm quite reclusive and haven't really kept track of the literal holidays.
@JasonBourne Well, they are rather childish in appearance I suppose.