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01:40
@JasonBourne Guess what I saw in a used bookstore today.
02:24
@Cerberus yes, in the second -do above also.
@Cerberus have you studied reduplication in Latin? It's an interesting topic.
02:44
> "I have in front of me, oh, about eight or 10 different newspapers," FDR said in that February 1939 press conference.
What's troubling about that sentence?
> But Truman and Eisenhower were from a different generation as Kennedy.
Or that one?
@tchrist is there any remnant of reduplication in Romance languages that you know of?
I presume the rooster’s ki-kirikí doesn't count. :)
Only conventional transcriptions of animal sounds come quickly to mind.
And those aren't grammatical.
So don't count.
The English penchant for creating namby-pamby compounds at the drop of a hat does not seem to occur there, at least with such widespread inventiveness.
I'm not talking about those
I've had Romance speakers mention these.
I'm talking about reduplication in Latin
sto (stare, steti, statum) was a reduplicative verb, e.g.
02:54
You mean things like repeating bits of a word to mean some aspect.
well that's one use of reduplication
you'll only see it in the second stem
quisquis
Lots of those.
but they didn't get inherited to Spanish
I can't think of any.
And I probably would know.
well maybe there's a question you'd know more about: how did the past tense of "estar" become "estuve"? Is this corrupted by tuve?
and even so, how did tuve get there?
02:57
There's some PIE-inherited theme of /i/ or /u/ in the strong preterites, inherited from Latin.
but the Latin was tenui for tuve and steti for estuve
with a long i
Portuguese has tive there, not tuve.
interesting
so the u is from v?
this still wouldn't explain the disappearance of n though
Well.
and I assume you've completely switched to tuve, ignoring estuve.
02:59
I'm thinking they modelled it after something else, yes.
I don't know.
which verb are you talking about?
I'm thinking about strong preterites.
estuve or tuve?
Things that are NOT stressed at the end.
Like both of those.
Or supe etc.
... que supo seguir ...
03:01
hubo
supe < sapui ...
hice, fiz
habuit > hubo
From feci.
right, that's regular
03:02
pude, puse
quise
vine
potui > pude
quaesevi > quise
veni > vine is regular
dije
dixi > dije is regular
And of course, fui.
pide
which fui?
03:04
Both of them! :)
Suppletion is so weird.
they're from the same root though, methinks
All the -ucir verbs going to -uje.
well they might also have descended from fugio (fugi)
we also have sum (fui)
@tchrist for example?
conduje, produje
petivi > pide
@tchrist this is regular
it's -uxi- in Latin
03:06
> The infinitive and forms beginning with i or y are from Latin īre, present active infinitive of eō (from Proto-Italic *eō, from Proto-Indo-European *h₁ey-); the forms beginning with v from corresponding forms of vādō; the forms beginning with f probably from forms of sum or fugio.
@tchrist yes, I was referring to this
anduve
sum (fui) or fugio (fugi)
right
but conduje and produje are obviously borrowed
03:07
I thought you meant the fui of ser or the fui of ir.
@tchrist well I also meant that
now have we cited enough examples?
May we go back to the mechanism?
The stressed vowel in the not-stressed-at-the-end preterite is always /u/ or /i/.
also, the -uve forms might be influenced by the -uvisti forms, having a different stress
that might give us tenuisti > tuisti > tuvisti
So, here's the thing.
That ES tuve versus PT tive thing, I mentioned: it's the same with estuve / estive.
sure
I don't think steti is ever inherited to Spanish/Portuguese
they might have completely remodeled it based on the first stem
stare > *stavi, displacing Classical Latin steti
my hypothesis.
03:11
I'm almost certain Galician is exactly like regular Portuguese here. I'd have to look up Catalan though because that's from a different group.
estiguí in Catalan
but I haven't studied much about the evolution of Catalan
Ahah!
Word-final stress, like normal preterites.
there's a -g- there
which also appears in the strange 1.sg.pres estic
Catalan has funny things.
Sometimes digging through Old French or Italian helps see the similarities, but sometimes not.
Old French has estui
03:14
(with Catalan)
Ahah.
Again.
stetti for Italian
Are you trying to figure out where the -v- came from?
well, less the -v-, more the -u-, but they're related.
wait, stetti for Italian must have directly inherited steti in Latin
so Italian hasn't gone through the regularization
03:16
Just a sec, I'm reading paper copy for possibilities.
alright
the -g- in Catalan is also interesting
it only appears in 1.sg.pres and the preterite
For morphology they do group fui/estuve/hube/tuve/fui [sic, 2x] as a cluster, but I'm not seeing more than that in a quick skim.
what is the sic for and what does 2x mean?
In contrast, they do show lots of things like ruptum > roto, factum > hecho.
factum > hecho is regular
03:19
@LeakyNun fui for both ir and ser
@tchrist alright
ruptum > roto isn't unexpected
rightdam
The you have about 20 pairs where you have the old participle co-extant with a more regular one: torcido and tuerto both for torcer.
it still amazes me that the reason French faites has kept the "t" and "s" instead of changing it to "z" like other verbs is because the stress is on the "a"
Where the irregular does has come to have a differentish meaning.
@LeakyNun thinks
@tchrist that's for another discussion though
03:21
faites should have been extremely common, and prone to being worn down, so I understand your amazement.
@tchrist I mean, the other verbs have -ez because the stress was on "e" in "-etis"
it's closer to the stress
I thought things closer to the stress should get preserved more
but it's being far away from the stress that preserved it
fAcites > fAItes
habEtis > *avEts > avEz
the difference might also be due to the different vowel, though
@tchrist alright, what's next?
Let me check one other place.
> "There is a nucleus of irregular verbs resisting easy incorporation into any conjugation; ser "to be" ir "to go", which incorporate forms from more than one Vulgar Latin verb, and ter "to have" vir "to come" pôr to put, which incorporate nasal root vowels with a variety of realizations.
Not helping.
> These verbs, together with dar and estar, the only first conjugation irregular verbs, also form a cohesive group with many analogical links....
Right, why is it doy/voy/estoy/soy in ES, dou/vou/estou/sou in PT.
I tend to think sum > sui > soy, but that wouldn't explain sou in PT so let's discard this hypothesis.
There's clearly a pattern here, but not a clear pattern. :)
not to mention eres < eris, future [forgot what mood]
03:30
Those are both indicative.
I see
what is in common is that the oy/ou are both from the stressed long o
assuming regularization of sum > so
are there other stressed long o in Latin? @tchrist
BTW, Portuguese has tu és like French has tu es.
@LeakyNun In final position?
@tchrist yes
03:35
I can only think of the Italian 1s future, like saprò for sapere, but that follows from the way they synthesized a new future from an inflection of what had been habere.
right
I can't think of a stressed "word final long o" in Latin.
well, essentially, monosyllabic verbs.
Right, not counting one-syllable ones.
Like do, *vo, sto
03:36
Sure.
Are there any other monosyllabic verbs?
Wait, not vo, vado.
doy, voy, soy are all I can think of remnants of, so if there had been one, it didn't last?
03:39
The diphthonging of the -o at the end to oy/ou into a semi-consonant glide that doesn't increase syllable count is a bit odd, but the PT 3s preterite has stressed -ou there. That might tell us why.
falou < falar
Like habló, but with a nominal diphthong heard today almost only in the north.
is falou stressed in the ou?
Yes.
Portuguese has different stress rules.
sure
and falei?
sure
They do this in the future, too.
Compare hablaré with falarei.
But there you always hear it.
-ou and -oy might be from different mechanism
03:43
On the ou diphthong, you usually do not.
do you palatalize d in dizer?
Me? No.
wait, my focus was on estuve/tuve, lol
Brazilians do.
Portuguese do not.
I see
03:46
Brazilian dice sounds like jici.
Portuguese dice sounds like dice. :)
So, your forehead is frente, as in Spanish.
That's "frenchy" in Brazilian, just "frent" with a silent e in Portuguese.
alright
All the -ity nouns from English that are -dad nouns in Spanish are -dade in Portuguese. The Portuguese have a silent e at the end so it sounds just like Spanish; the Brazilians say -aji
In contrast, most Brazilians don't palatalize -s in the syllable coda like they do in Portugal. Some do, though.
> *stavi > estuve
tenui > tuve
sapui > supe
habui > hube
feci > hice
potui > pude
posui > puse
quaesevi > quise
veni > vine
dixi > dije
fu(g)i > fui
petivi > pide
conduxi > conduje
*ambitavi > anduve
Now what conclusion should we draw?
03:50
It's a mix of things.
There looks to be a bit of metathesis.
metathesis?
The u in sapui switching places with the p.
I don't think it's that simple
the /u/ might be from the /b/
So, even during the Empire there was b/v "confusion" in Latin speakers from Hispania, or so it is said.
indeed.
03:54
Stubborn lot.
2000 years later and they still haven't fixed it.
b/v merged in stressed position and were dropped in unstressed position
You lost -d- often enough.
now how is that helpful?
potui has t>d which is normal.
I agree.
do they call this the first lenition?
03:56
It is.
Do that to a d and it's gone.
alright, what next?
The u in potui was short; the i was long because it was preterite, and they liked keeping long vowels.
agreed.
So the u was "weak".
but it might labialize the stop
03:58
I wonder if some of these weren't formed via analogy with others. But we already said that.
let's disregard analogy for now
right!
it must have come from labialization of the stop
the /u/
Portuguese has lots of "extreme lenitions" like French has, as in vitam > FR vi, so luna > PT lua, GAL lúa. But I don't think the /u/ there was part of that last one.
what did you mean by the last statement?
it's well-known though, that in PT we have V -> +nasal / _nV
I don't think the n in luna disappeared under influence of the neighboring vowels being u and a; I think intervocalic -n- was just weak there.
@LeakyNun Certainly.
@tchrist so do you think luna > lua is a instance of that rule?
04:04
(The only way I know all the "irregular" -ão plurals is by translating to Spanish or Latin. I don't know how native speakers do it.)
Latin lūna > Old Portuguese lũa > Portuguese lua
No, I THINK intervocalic -n- and -l- were simply effaced irrespective of which vowel it was.
in PT or in GL?
PT/GL both; same language a few hundred years ago. But note malum > mao > mau versus manus > mão
did you say a few hundred years? :o
04:07
Yes.
Some people think they're still the same language, which is a bit political.
that's.... way sooner than I thought
anyway, let's go back to the -uCe problem
If you read the "Galician" poetry of Alfonso X, it really is no different from the Portuguese at the time; they were the same at that point.
alright
-uCe
These can't have gotten anything from steti to estuve.
Or estive, whatever.
My hypothesis is now sapui > saβʷé (French/Italian orthography for open e) > suβʷe > supe
@tchrist well, as I said, it must have been a regularization
04:13
I would say that è is open e in French and that é is close e, no? An é is open e in Portuguese BTW; close e is ê there. So FR é = PT ê, FR è, ê = PT é.
whines
French é is /e/ FWIW
Right, that's the one I meant for close.
it's a open vowel
How?
/ɛ/ is open, /e/ is close, surely?
wait, nothing
it's too confusing
04:15
heh
Which is why Spanish is so much easier with 5 vowels than everybody else with 7 or worse.
sure
> Old French: estui/estai
Catalan: estiguí
Galician: estiven
Portuguese: estive
Spanish: estuve
Italian: stetti
Asturian: tuvi/tevi
So there's agreement once you leave Italy. :)
As I said, Italian is from steti without remodeling
and Italian is not Western Romance
I don't think of it that way.
Romanian is Eastern Romance.
Asturian has decided to eff the s
04:18
ta
hell, does Romanian even have preterite?
Damned if I know.
@tchrist yes, and Italian is nothing.
Sardinian has lots of short e and short o going to i and u.
@tchrist the vowel system development is completely different
you have long e and short i merger in Western Vulgar Latin
but long and short merger instead in Sardinian
04:20
thanks
Romanian has "simple perfect" stătui
@tchrist I tend to think of it as, you know, umlaut.
You're always supposed to look for yod in Romance philology.
sure
English:
*gulþą > gold
*gulþīnaz > gylden
04:23
/u/ > /y/ is i-mutation, yes.
Neapolitan:
russum > russo
russam > rossa
similar enough
still metaphony
That should be short-o > ɔ, right?
right
and short-o > u
grossum > gruosso
grossam > grossa
Now you make me figure out whether metaphony and vowel harmony are similar or the same.
> Vowel harmony is sometimes used synonymously with metaphony. Usually, however, "vowel harmony" refers specifically to a synchronic process operating in a particular language, normally requiring all vowels in a word to agree in a particular feature (e.g. vowel height or vowel backness).
> Most commonly, the triggering vowel is in the first syllable of the word (i.e. this is a type of progressive metaphony), as in Turkish, Finnish or Hungarian. In some cases, however, the triggering vowel is in the last syllable, typically a suffix, as in many varieties of Andalusian Spanish.
04:27
You can see why I wondered. :)
> In the Romance languages, metaphony was an early vowel mutation process that operated in all Romance languages to varying degrees, raising (or sometimes diphthongizing) certain stressed vowels in words with a final /i/ or /u/ or a directly following /j/. This is conceptually similar to the umlaut process so characteristic of the Germanic languages.
Metaphony is most extensive in the Italo-Romance languages, and applies to nearly all languages of Italy. However, it is absent from Tuscan, and hence from standard Italian.
e.g. in Finnish, the vowels in a word either belong to {a,e,i,o,u} or {ä,e,i,ö,ü}
but there isn't a yod in my examples
Right, that's where I remember it from.
I know. :(
I don't think you can use yod to get to estuve, but I'm often wrong.
to get to estuve, one must first figure out from where.
tenui > tuve is also impossible
Spanish doesn't drop the n's.
@tchrist
yes
It doesn't
I was looking at stuff about español antiguo.
alright
04:34
so, what is the regularized form for estuve and tuve?
tení, apparently.
> El estadio (1) corresponde a formas universalmente regularizadas en todas las variedades del español, el estadio (2) corresponde a formas generalmente regularizadas con formas arcaicas dialectales marginales, el estadio (3) corresponde a tendencias del español que se encuentran más asentadas en unos dialectos que en otros. Finalmente el estadio (4) es una tendencia regularizadora que sólo se encuentra en fases iniciales de adquisición de la lengua.
that isn't what I mean
I mean, the etymon of tuve
> En el cambio del castellano antiguo al español moderno se produjeron numerosos cambios analógicos y regularizaciones, especialmente en el paradigma verbal. Por ejemplo, en español antiguo son frecuentes formas de pretérito perfecto simple en -uve muchas retenidas aún en la lengua moderna (anduve, tuve, ...) pero otras ya desaparecidas como (conuve 'conocí' o similarmente truxe 'traje', ...).
They just liked -uve by analogy, apparently.
by analogy of what? why specifically those verbs?
what is that truxi? it was traxi in Latin
04:40
True.
We should ask how it got to traigo.
The -go thing out of nowhere happens quite a few other places, too, in 1s.
except those aren't out of nowhere
traho has to have been weak.
The h will have disappeared.
the other -go's are from a yod in n or L
Not this one, I think.
But there is the i?
indeed
04:42
Why would that yod it, hm.
traho > trajo, you think?
I wish people had written Vulgar Latin down, damn it.
but where's the fun in that?
But the people who knew how to write, knew how to write it the "right" way, so didn't.
what was traigo in castellano antiguo?
04:44
Spanish did not spring from Athena suddenly in the 11th century, but try finding precursors older than that.
I have exactly one volume of an Old Spanish dictionary, and I'll never find it.
valgo
L
sorry muttering
trajo seems possible
Meaning /j/
alright
then fortition of j
That's why I muttered valgo < valeo
fortition of yod
valeo > valjo > valgo
04:48
Unlike the route from vetulus to viejo
Oh there's a VL *veclus posited.
that is veclus > veLHo
Which is normal.
LH is portuguese orthography
Yeah.
have you found your dictionary?
04:51
No, just my bed, if I'm lucky.
This is two nights in a row till 11. I never do that.
fun fact: find > found is Germanic, and found > founded is Romance.
fun fact: replace f by b above to get another correct statement
> bun bact
fundación
indeed
> Adam lay ybounden
bind?
04:53
yes
bounded is from ?
bundus I suppose
Depends which one.
there's only one
> From Middle English bounde, from Old French bunne, from Medieval Latin bodina, earlier butina (“a bound, limit”)
right
04:55
We don't use bounden very much anymore.
The bind one.
> From Middle English binden, from Old English bindan, from Proto-Germanic *bindaną (compare West Frisian bine, Dutch binden, Low German binnen, German binden, Danish binde), from Proto-Indo-European *bʰendʰ- (“to tie”) (compare Welsh benn (“cart”), Latin offendīx (“knot, band”), Lithuanian beñdras (“partner”), Albanian bend (“servant, henchman”), bind (“to convince, persuade, tame”), Ancient Greek πεῖσμα (peîsma, “cable, rope”), Sanskrit बध्नाति (badhnāti)).
do we have a Romance cognate of find?
pendo
pendeo
Says compare pons.
But yes, pendo.
*ponts, consonant stem
pont-
that makes sense
o-grade
04:58
> From Proto-Indo-European *pónteh₁s (“path, road”), from *pent- (“path”). Cognate with Sanskrit पथिन् (páthin), Ancient Greek πόντος (póntos), Old Armenian հուն (hun, “riverbed”), and Old English findan (English find).
That's under pons.
there's quite a lot of ablaut visible in eo
thanks
eunt < ejont

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