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01:17
I've given up on the previous question, so here's another: if I have a 1-categorical localization L : C \rightarrow D at some class of morphisms W, I can look at simplicial presheaves on both + projective model structure (Dugger's universal homotopy theory). Is sPre(D) in general Quillen equivalent to the Bousfield localization of sPre(C) at the class generated by W? C,D, and W are essentially small for my purposes.
@JoeBerner If you say $L$ is the $\infty$-categorical localization, rather than the $1$-categorical localization, the answer should be yes.
If I understand your question correctly
 
9 hours later…
10:33
Are there non-affine schemes for which the structure sheaf generates the derived category of quasi-coherent sheaves?
 
2 hours later…
12:12
Hello,
Is there some kind of conceptual or synthetic way to arrive at the definition of a derivation?
12:52
@CharlesRezk The C and D I'm looking at are just 1-categories and L doesn't have any kind of adjoint. You can get a Quillen adjunction F: sPre(C)[W^{-1}] \rightarrow sPre(D) by universal properties, I guess the question is just if this is an equivalence. While L doesn't have a section, we can map D into sPre(C) via sending Y to Hom(L-,Y), and then postcompose to sPre(C)[W^{-1}]. Then by Dugger sPre(D) has a contractible space of Quillen functors to sPre(C)[W^{-1}].
We can pick one, call it G, and check that it's the 'inverse' to F via universal properties. (I think that makes sense, but the coffee hasn't kicked in yet.)
 
2 hours later…
skd
skd
14:40
@Arrow these are just linear operators satisfying Liebniz. you can think of this in terms of tangent spaces. see this for example: mathoverflow.net/questions/88880/…
15:06
@Arrow I'm a simple man and find K\"ahler differentials perfectly conceptual, but 7.3 in Lurie's Higher Algebra does translate the idea into categorical language so you can generalize this to \mathbb{E}_\infty rings
 
1 hour later…
16:29
Thank you.
The [nlab entry](https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/transversal+maps#properties) on tranversality says the tangent bundle functor preserves transverse pullbacks. How does this fit with the following example?

Let $f:X\to Y$ be a submersion and look at some fiber $f^{-1}(y)$. This is a transverse pullback. Its image by the tangent bundle functor is a commutative square (over $Y$) whose top left corner is the tangent bundle of the fiber $\mathrm Tf^{-1}(y)$. But $\mathrm T(\mathbf 1)=\mathbf 0$ and so if this square is also a pullback we conclude $\mathrm Tf^{-1}(y)\cong \mathrm{Ker}(\m
 
3 hours later…
19:49
@Arrow The tangent bundle of the fiber is indeed the pullback of the kernel of $df$. I am not sure I understand your perplexity
20:32
@DenisNardin doesn't that mean all fibers have the same tangent bundle? I thought that's strange since fibers of a submersion might not even have the same homotopy type
see Ehresmann's theorem
20:49
Ehresmann's theorem addresses proper submersions only though
I asked my question here
21:01
Also, Ker(df) is that kernel restricted to each fiber. There's no reason that should imply the fibers are the same.
@Arrow You should precise in which category we are working. I think you should be working in the category of spaces equipped with a bundle, where the fiber products are computed by computing the fiber products of the underlying spaces, and then taking the fiber product of the pullbacks of the bundles
21:25
@MikeMiller I'm not looking at the fiberwise kernel, I'm looking at the kernel bundle.

@DenisNardin I think the category of vector bundles over $X$ and then over $Y$ are the correct settings: we start by forming the kernel bundle in the category of bundles over $Y$ and then base change to obtain the vertical bundle, which is over $X$.

I tried to be detailed in my linked question :)
I do not participate to M.SE, but I cannot understand what you mean by "the tangent bundle functor"
The only such functor I can imagine goes from (smooth) manifolds to the category of spaces equipped with a vector bundle
I'm thinking of the codomain simply as the category of vector bundles
The internal vector spaces in the arrow category of manifolds?
What is the category of vector bundles?
Does that not make sense?
I think that you mean the same thing as I mean when I say "the category of manifolds equipped with a vector bundle", where objects are pairs (M,E) where M is a manifold and E is a vector bundle over M and morphism are pairs of maps (f:M→M',E→f^*E')
21:30
Oh, yes, sorry.
Ok, then what are fiber products in this category?
That is suppose you have a diagram (M',E')→(M,E)←(M'',E''), what is the pullback?
I'm not looking at pullbacks within this category, but in the category of manifolds. Each submersion gives a base change functor
I think you are confusing two different functors, or perhaps I do not understand what you mean
I thought that you were asking about how T:Mfld→(Mfld with a v. bundle) preserves pullbacks
Ahh, I understand where I've mislead you. Sorry. I am just trying to understand why $T$ from manifolds to manifolds preserves pullbacks. So, compose with forgetting about the bundle structure in the codomain.
A manifold goes to the total space of its tangent bundle
If I understand correctly, that's what the nlab says here
Actually I'd intepret it as saying that the functor T I described above preserves pullbacks
21:35
Ok, I will try to think about the functor you described earlier later, but for now I don't understand how the latter could be true
Should I restate what's bugging me?
Start with a pullback square $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} f^{-1}(y) @>>> \mathbf 1\\ @VVV @VV{y}V\\ X @>{f}>> Y \end{CD}$$. Apply $\mathrm T$ to obtain a commutative square (over $Y$) $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} \mathrm T f^{-1}(y) @>>> \mathbf 0\\ @VVV @VVV\\ \mathrm T X @>{\mathrm df}>> \mathrm T Y \end{CD}$$. If this square is a pullback, the left vertical arrow is the kernel-bundle of the differential.
Well, wait. The square is a pullback in what category?
The latter? Maybe this is where I got confused... I was thinking of its as a pullback square in the category of manifolds...
The kernel bundle of the differential is the pullback of the square TX→f^*TY←0 in the category of vector bundles over X, but I thought we were just working in the category of manifolds here
Then the pullback is not the kernel bundle of the differential
In fact, 0→TY is not the zero section but the inclusion of the zero vector above y
21:40
I don't understand your last sentence - it's just the initial arrow, no?
No
So, instead of calling it 0, let me call it T1
It is also the 1-point space
That is not the initial object in the category of smooth manifolds, the initial object is the empty manifold
I kept confusing two categories because I was also thinking of the category of vector bundles, which has a zero object
Bleh, I mixed everything up.
If we replace my incorrect zero with the terminal object as you said (I undertand what you meant by the zero vector above $y$ now), then the square $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} \mathrm T f^{-1}(y) @>>> \mathbf 1\\ @VVV @VVV\\ \mathrm T X @>{\mathrm df}>> \mathrm T Y \end{CD}$$ should be a pullback, right?
(In the category of manifolds)
Yes, and in fact it is
Ahh, okay. I think it all makes sense now, since the right vertical arrow does not become just zero, but remembers the point $y$.
You can easily deduce that this square is a pullback from the implicit function theorem
21:50
I definitely can't do it myself but the books I'm looking at deduce the fiberwise result
You should try to do it yourself, it's a good exercise in differential geometry and it is not that hard
I found that a bit of hands on experience is invaluable if one is trying to tackle abstract subjects
That is, first prove fibers of regular values are embedded premanifolds, then use the local form of submersions to deduce the kernel of the differential at a point is the tangent space to the fiber at the same point.
Yeah, you can even get it in one step if you word your argument carefully
Ok. Is it okay if I ask for a solution in a couple of days?
Sure. Why wouldn't it be?
21:52
I'm wasting plenty of your time :)
Well, I do not need to be the one to answer...
Last thing that's been bugging me is the kernel bundle. In particular, its fibers. By definition the kernel bundle is over $Y$, so $(\ker \mathrm df)^{-1}(y)\overset{?}{=}\varinjlim_{p\in f^{-1}(y)}\ker\mathrm d_pf$ in the category of vector spaces?
The kernel bundle is not over Y. Why do you think it should be over Y?
The kernel bundle is over X
I thought it's over $Y$ because kernels do not make sense in a category of vector bundles unless the base is fixed
Indeed, it is the kernel of TX→f^*TY
21:56
The kernel bundle is over $Y$, but the vertical bundle is the base change of the kernel bundle along $f$. Right?
Which definition of kernel bundle are you using?
the bundle with the universal property of the kernel in the category of vector bundles over $Y$
But the kernel of what map?
TX→f^*TY is a map of vector bundles over X
I'm thinking of the kernel bundle as the kernel of the differential of $f$, seen as a bundle map $df:f\circ \pi\to \pi^\prime $ where $\pi:TX\to X$ and $\pi^\prime :TY\to Y$.
What is $f\circ π$?
21:59
the composite $TX\to X\to Y$
That is not a vector bundle over Y
I mean, its fibers are not vector spaces
Yes, that bugged me, that's why I started fabricating stuff with colimits..
It's much better thinking of df as a map from TX to f^*TY
So, a map of vector bundles over X
because then it really is a vector bundle map of bundles over $X$?
Yes
Then its kernel is really what's called the "vertical bundle", that is the vector bundle over X which is the subbundle of TX consisting of vectors tangent to the fibers of f
22:02
I understand! Do you ever think of $df$ as going into $TY$, or always into the base change?
Well, it depends of what I am using df for. In general I think of df as a map in the category I outlined above (topological spaces equipped with a vector bundle) which then can take a particular aspect depending on what characteristic I'm interested in
But in the category you mention, the differential is really a commutative square whose top edge is $df:TX\to TY$, right?
It depends on the precise description of the category. An equivalent description is saying that a map (X,E)→(X',E') is a pair of maps (f,\tilde f) where f:X→Y is a map of spaces and \tilde f: E→f^*E' is a map of vector bundles over X
Okay. One last question: are the surjective submersions by any chance precisely the regular epis of the category of (pre)manifolds? (maybe the universally regular epis?)
Uhm I do not think so, but I am far from an expert.
That is quite orthogonal to what submersions are good for (the existence of well-behaved pullbacks)
22:09
I just thought the embeddings would be the regular monos and surjective submersions the regular epis because it would give a neat picture
It might be the case, but even if it is true I do not think it's going to be anything but an interesting curio
Okay, thank you very very much for everything! I'm off to bed.
Good night!
22:52
What do we know about Picard group of homotopy category of G-spectra for G a cyclic group of order p^n? Do we have a explicit description of it somewhere?
@Mingcong Yes! There is a complete description of Pic(G) for every finite group here: math.uiuc.edu/K-theory/0407
To find the complete statement in full generality you have to hunt down a few references though
I think that in the case of a p-group it might be completely generated by the representation spheres plus the picard group of the Burnside ring
23:11
@DenisNardin Awesome! I am reading that paper now! Thank you!

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