""Race" has never been defined in law in England, Scotland, Ireland, Great Britain or the United Kingdom. The legal definitions you keep going back to are an anachronism from a United States that was far in the future in the 1660s."
Yes, that is the point. There was no "race" in the British Colonies, at law, in the 1660's.
That is why the term "racism", as applied to the present question, is a misnomer; historically incorrect; inapplicable.