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10:19 AM
@Mann great !!
Got it and thank you :)
 
I am using this defintion of differentiability, $ \lim_{ \Delta \rho \to 0} \cfrac{ \Delta z - dx }{\Delta \rho} = 0 $
Just for the sake of reference here is the function, $$f (x,y) \begin{cases} (x^2 + y^2) \arctan(y/x) & \text{if x $\ne$ 0} \\ y^2 \cfrac{\pi}{2} & \text{if x = 0} \end{cases} $$
 
dx is what?
 
$dz = z_x \Delta x + z_y \Delta y$
Sorry, that's $dz$
The problem comes in finding $z_x$.
 
The definition is to check differentiability at (0,0) only right?
Let me formulate the problem in the way I know
 
Okay, we can discuss about the applicabiility later, because problem comes in finding the partial derivative with respect to x
 
10:34 AM
Why is that?
 
$$z_x = \lim_{h \to 0} \cfrac{ f(h,y) - f(0,y)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \cfrac{ (h^2 + y^2) \arctan(y/h) - y^2 \cfrac{\pi}{2} }{h} $$
depending on the sign of $y$ , $\arctan(y/h)$ can be $\pm \pi /2$
Even assuming that h > 0
but in answer it is stated that the function is differentiable.
 
But does the limit exists for different cases of y>0 , y<0 and y=0?
It seems like there will be an issue
 
issue regarding what?
 
h can approach from both positive and negative side of 0 for a given y
Ahh but
We have to check differentiabilty at only (0,0)
 
Yeah, there wil be two possible values for all different sign combination.
@Mann :(
 
10:41 AM
What?
We don't care whether the partial derivative exist or not I think
 
Didn't saw that!
 
Ahhh xD
So its okay now?
 
Thanks!
 
Try changing to polar coordinates
 
@Mann yeah, boils down to epsilon-delta stuffs, fine!
 
10:43 AM
It may be better
 
Yeah, did that earlier.
 
Okayy
 
 
2 hours later…
12:33 PM
$2 \Delta T * sin \frac { \delta \theta }{2} = \Delta T * \delta \theta$
Can someone justify this? (It is actually approximately equal to, Not exactly equal to)
( $ \delta \theta $ is obviously, small). Also note that $ \Delta T$ is some constant.
 
1:22 PM
@McSuperbX1 limit x tends to 0 sinx/x= 1
 
1:42 PM
correct..
 
 
3 hours later…
4:59 PM
Hello!
Every convergent sequence is bounded right?
Then what about $\dfrac{1}{1-n}$
It does obey definition of convergent sequence but isn't bounded
 

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