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14:00
Haha!
Anonymous
Well, the basic idea is this: in subject-auxiliary inversion (SAI), the subject and auxiliary switch places. "I do eat pie." "Do I eat pie?"
trying to search for my shouldn't've...
Anonymous
When you negate it: "I do not eat pie." → "Do I not eat pie?" The same thing happens. Do and I switch places.
Anonymous
You can contract do not into don't: "I don't eat pie." → "Don't I eat pie?"
Anonymous
Here, don't appears to be an auxiliary--a single word! It switches places with I.
14:01
Oh, I remember that. I didn't fall into that trap.
But obviously, many did.
> "Do I not eat pie?"
Anonymous
Yeah, some learners think "Don't" = "Do not", so they can write *"Do not I eat pie?"
Anonymous
But contraction takes place before inversion.
In the back of my head, there was a voice saying, "Did you not?"
I'm not sure whose voice is it. Maybe Morgan Freeman. :-)
Anonymous
And of course, that's fine. "Did you not eat pie?" asked Morgan Freeman.
(Now I'm thinking of it, I can hear him again.)
Anonymous
14:04
But this is evidence that -n't is an affix in modern English. Of course, it's obvious that historically it was simply a reduced form of not
Anonymous
The etymology is very transparent, so speakers are very aware of a relationship between -n't and not, regardless of whether you tell them about it
Anonymous
But in that paper, using this evidence and other evidence, they show that -n't is an affix
Anonymous
In other words, do and don't are two inflectional forms of a single verb
Anonymous
In contrast, 've is a clitic
Anonymous
14:05
"Eh?" to which?
@snailboat They asserted that?
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Yep. It's pretty well demonstrated, in my opinion
Anonymous
I just gave you one of several pieces of evidence.
Anonymous
Another is that, as an affix rather than a clitic, it's selective about its hosts.
Anonymous
've is not. You can stick it on whatever--it's just a phonologically reduced form of unstressed have which depends on another word phonologically but is syntactically independent
Anonymous
14:07
Whereas -n't is not syntactically independent
I'm not sure I can follow you completely.
Anonymous
One moment.
Because we can say "Don't I eat pie?", "n't" is an affix?
Anonymous
That's one of several pieces of evidence which, when taken together, point in that direction.
14:09
JSTOR!
Hmm... Clitics can attach to material already containing clitics, but affixes cannot.
Anonymous
If you want to read it on JSTOR, the link in that PDF works. You should be able to read it there with a free MyJSTOR account
Anonymous
But the PDF is fine, I think.
Should I say "I suggest you to eat there" or "I suggest you eat there"?
Anonymous
@felipe.zkn The latter is better.
14:14
@snailboat Are both forms correct or is there a formality preference in the first?
We suggest ideas, not people.
Anonymous
@felipe.zkn The form is "I suggest [ that you eat there ]". It's a finite subordinate clause, so the appropriate (but optional) subordinator is that, not to.
Thank you very much, @snailboat. Great answer.
@snailboat I found it!
2 days ago, by Damkerng T.
Really strange, considering that we even have something like "wouldn't've".
Anonymous
A-ha!
14:24
See? :-)
Anonymous
So by this analysis, wouldn't is a negative inflected form of would, and 've is a cliticized form of have attached to it
Anonymous
But you can't do it the other way around: "would have not" can't be replaced with "would'ven't", because -n't is more selective about what it attaches to
In other words, wouldn't've is possible.
But if that speculation is correct, wouldn't've'd would also be possible.
I think 'd is clitic.
Bad shift key!
Hmm... Is just've possible?
Anonymous
Let's say 'd is a clitic. (I agree that it is.) Then that means it's a cliticized form of had.
I know that some people write it that way, but it doesn't look kosher to me.
@snailboat Yes. Agree.
Anonymous
14:29
So it can only occur when had is unstressed, right? Not when had is lexical
Anonymous
Since cliticized forms are extremely reduced forms of unstressed wordss
Anonymous
Now, let's look at "I would not have had a chance."
Speech is always involved.
Anonymous
The first have is an auxiliary, so it can be reduced. The second have is not--it's a lexical verb.
Anonymous
14:30
That means it bears stress and can't take the cliticized (extremely reduced) form.
What I really thought for wouldn't've'd was actually wouldn't've'd been.
Anonymous
"She would not have had been"?
Anonymous
"She would not have had been late"
Anonymous
14:31
What is the role of each verb, have, had, and been?
been is the main verb.
Obviously.
Anonymous
Sure. That leaves have and had. What are they?
Anonymous
They must both be auxiliaries then.
I think of all the rest as aux.
Anonymous
But you can't have multiple auxiliary haves in the same clause.
14:32
Hmm...
Anonymous
If you have have have in one clause, the latter has to be a lexical verb.
Then how would you explain it?
Anonymous
Because you can't double up on perfect auxiliaries.
Anonymous
I would explain it by calling it ungrammatical.
I see, it's ungrammatical.
Anonymous
14:33
There is only one slot for a perfect auxiliary in a clause. One moment
See what happened when I tried to hack the language. :-)
Anonymous
The relevant section of CGEL is uploaded on a Language Log page
Anonymous
Take a look at the chart of possible strings of auxiliaries.
14:34
Wow, nice! Thanks. reading...
Anonymous
Those are slots, so in some cases different verbs can fill the same slot.
Anonymous
Have can fill exactly two slots: the perfect auxiliary slot, and the lexical verb slot.
This one is interesting: will have been being taken
Anonymous
The latter bears stress and can't take the cliticized form, so wouldn't've'd is not a possible reduced form
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. I don't think that LL entry says so, but in CGEL they note that that construction has only entered the English language over the last hundred years. Notably, it has two forms of be in sequence. Some speakers are still uncomfortable with it, I think
Anonymous
14:36
But it's fine for me.
It sounds fine to me, and I was surprised that it sounds fine to me.
Perhaps because I'm fine with: She is being nice.
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. I wonder how your hacking of the language differs from what I do when I attempt to explain the same thing :-)
Anonymous
After all, talking about "cliticized forms" and such isn't something you get from natively acquiring a language.
Anonymous
Aren't I hacking it, too? :-)
To me, hacking (a language) means poking (it) around in an unusual way.
Anonymous
14:40
I do think you have to acquire language (natively or otherwise) before you try to hack it to pieces, though, 'cause your competence in the language guides you as you try to put stuff into little boxes
Usually non-native speakers do that.
I would recommend otherwise.
Anonymous
I get what you're saying there
Because our brains can't really remember things selectively.
But it's fun! :-)
Anonymous
Hehe, it is!
Anonymous
Sometimes, though, trying to take apart a language reveals the gaps in your understanding.
14:42
That happens quite often to me.
Anonymous
I'm sure you've had that experience, too
Anonymous
Ah!
Sometimes, even a simple phrase can reveals the gaps too.
Anonymous
Oh, sure.
I've just found one this evening (my evening). :-)
Anonymous
14:43
What phrase?
>BANNER : Are you here to kill me, Ms.Romanoff? ’Cause that’s not going to work out for everyone.
NATASHA : No, no. Of course not. I’m here onbehalf of SHIELD.
I just realized that I've never translated that "work out" before.
So, when I tried to think of a good answer for the OP, I couldn't come up with a good explanation on my feet. :-)
It's difficult to rephrase "work" or "out" or "work out".
So I know that I don't really know the meaning deeply.
But I understand the phrase perfectly.
Anonymous
It's noncompositional.
"work out" can be thought of as a unit, I believe.
In any case, I added my little opinion to FF's answer. I hope that it's helpful.
Anonymous
Yes, when something is noncompositional, there's something about it you can't figure out from its constituent pieces, in this case work and out. Either the meaning is funny, or the syntax, or . . .
Anonymous
I don't know what question we're talking about, by the way.
Anonymous
Thank you
For what? Pasting a link is not a big deal. :-)
I owe you much more than this.
Anonymous
Ah, it's just a social nicety--I wasn't thinking of anything in particular when I typed it
You are always nice, and kind, and caring.
Anonymous
In my semi-formal style here, I actually type "thank you", but in real life I almost never say that entire phrase--the most I say is "Thanks!"
Anonymous
14:52
I'm not a particularly formal person most of the time
Me (n)either!
Anonymous
But we all shift registers :-)
Anonymous
I have one friend who always says neither, but she spells it "meen either"
It seems a bit like that. :-)
Anonymous
Maybe she thinks the /n/ is funny. I never asked.
14:53
Haha!
Kinda cute!
Anonymous
I mimicked it once, and another one of my friends about took my head off for spelling it like that.
Anonymous
This was when I was maybe twenty years old.
Anonymous
Come to think of it, my friend probably doesn't spell it that way anymore.
Anonymous
I just remember because I like nonstandard spellings, so they stick out in my memory.
Anonymous
14:54
@DamkerngT. I feel like I'm not nice enough.
Anonymous
Probably the worst is the feeling you get when you tell someone they're wrong.
Anonymous
I still haven't figured out the right way to do that.
I'm sure you are. And it's more than enough for me. :-)
To me, you can be just blunt.
Anonymous
Again, are can only take its cliticized form 're when it is unstressed
Anonymous
In that position, are bears stress and cannot be reduced: "I'm sure you are."
14:56
Oh, I see. That's true!
Anonymous
Phonological requirement.
I couldn't speak that are unstressed.
Sometimes I noticed this: closed w/o comment (auto)
I'm curious about this (auto) condition.
Anonymous
That flag is raised automatically by Community when a post is closed without any comments.
Ah, I see.
Anonymous
A moderator will clear it sooner or later. You can ignore it or leave a comment if you think you have something useful to add (to explain why it's been closed).
14:58
nods
Anonymous
I don't think leaving a comment automatically clears the flag, though.
Anonymous
Every time I leave a comment on JLSE after closing a question, I still have to clear the flag manually.
I don't think so, either.
Anonymous
We're accumulating lurkers. Hello, lurkers!
Oh, have you seen my examples for the case "It is in my contemplation that ..." yet?
Anonymous
14:59
@DamkerngT. You can show me if you like.
I found 5 of them on Google Books. go looking...
19 hours ago, by Damkerng T.
> It is a little bit out of my field, but it is my contemplation that the public of the United States is going to benefit by superior service.
This is one of them.
Hi! I'm about, but mostly working on something else (signed: one of the lurkers :))
Anonymous
Ah, that does seem like your hypothetical example where it's like dream. Although it doesn't seem like the OP's example in the question we were discussing
Anonymous
@Nico Yay!
:D Hello @Nico!
15:02
Unfortunately, this weekend is busy with work.
@snailboat Yes, it's like dream, but isn't it like the tea example?
@Nico Hard work brings success!
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. It is like your hypothetical sentence, but I think that in the OP's example the structure is different: A that B = B, because A
Eh? I don't think the OP's sentence has because.
Anonymous
Semantically
I think it's a nice article
and I quite agree with it.
15:05
@Nico LOL -- A nice counter-argument!
Anonymous
In any case, if you think that both the of-phrase and that-phrase were complements, then what are the semantic roles of both?
Anonymous
> contemplation [of A] [that B]
Anonymous
That structure isn't comprehensible to me
Anonymous
So I can't tell what they would be.
15:06
I grouped it as "It is our [contemplation [of A]] [that B]."
Anonymous
Then that would not be like your dream example
Anonymous
Anyway, you'll have to explain what you think each part is semantically in your interpretation.
I'm not sure I could use the terminologies properly.
Let's say that contemplation ~ dream
Anonymous
> It is our dream of A that B.
Anonymous
This is also incomprehensible to me, if our dream of A isn't a constituent clefted from B.
15:08
> It is my dream of the future that ELL will help many more learners.
Anonymous
= [ My dream of (the) future ] is [ that ELL will help many more learners ]
I agree with the the.
Anonymous
Hooray!
And the interpretation.
Anonymous
> Perhaps nowadays it is our demure contemplation dream of the Imperfect that the West and the East can meet in mutual consolation.
15:10
Yes, something like that.
That's the way I read it the first time I saw it.
(I had to type that r several times.)
Anonymous
= Perhaps nowadays [ our demure contemplation dream of the Imperfect ] is [ that the West and the East can meet in mutual consolation ]
I would reverse it: X is our dream. But roughly, yes, it's quite similar to the original.
Anonymous
> [ That ELL will help many more learners ] is [ my dream of the future ] .
Anonymous
> Perhaps nowadays [ that the West and the East can meet in mutual consolation ] is [ our demure contemplation of the Imperfect ] .
15:13
nods
Anonymous
Hmm, that doesn't work.
Oh! Why?
Anonymous
> [ That the West and the East can meet in mutual consolation ] is perhaps nowadays [ our demure contemplation of the Imperfect ] .
We can nix that that.
Anonymous
You can't delete a subordinator from a subordinate clause at the beginning of a sentence.
15:14
Shouldn't it be deleted when it is reversed?
> It is my dream that X.
> X is my dream.
X is a clause.
So we can't take that out.
> I suggest X.
Anonymous
> 1. It was certain [ that we would die ]
> 2. It was certain [ Ø we would die ]
> 3. [ That we would die ] was certain
> 4. *[ Ø We would die ] was certain
X can be a clause, I would say.
Hmm.
If X is a clause, you won't normally put that before X, I think.
15:17
Which X? (Now we have too many Xs.)
Anonymous
Darned variables.
X in "It is my dream that X." clearly is a clause.
So is the X in "I suggest X".
> I suggest we eat out.
Anonymous
> I suggest [ that/Ø we eat out ]
15:18
But I agree with "*[ Ø We would die ] was certain".
Anonymous
Because a subordinate clause at the beginning of a sentence needs an overt subordinator
Anonymous
(Can you think of a counterexample?)
thinking...
I was about to talk about the why again, but I think it can wait.
Talk away.
I think we can do multitasking.
Anonymous
15:21
When you hear "We would die" at the beginning of a sentence, it sounds like a main clause.
Anonymous
But when you hear it at the end: "It was certain [ we would die ]", it's clearly not
Anonymous
The signal there is not really necessary for the listener, so it makes sense that we can omit it.
Anonymous
(Although these requirements are not strictly related to logic. This is an after-the-fact justification.)
Can we say things like: To be or not to be is the question.
Anonymous
At the beginning of a sentence, you need the signal to let you know it's not a main clause
Anonymous
15:23
@DamkerngT. To be or not to be, that is the question.
Anonymous
You un-dislocated it! :-)
Hehe. I tried to hack it a bit.
Anonymous
It's a coordination of non-finite verb phrases. It's not very usual
Anonymous
But in any case, it has the subordinator to.
15:28
continue thinking...
15 mins ago, by snailboat
> [ That the West and the East can meet in mutual consolation ] is perhaps nowadays [ our demure contemplation of the Imperfect ] .
Anonymous
I don't know, my brain is kind of crashing on parsing this sentence
> The West and the East can meet in mutual consolation.
Anonymous
Okay, that seems like a good main clause
> This is perhaps our demure contemplation of the Imperfect nowadays.
Anonymous
What?
15:29
This refers to the previous sentence.
Anonymous
Yes, but I don't understand it :-)
> This is perhaps our dream nowadays.
In any case, I believe that this is not a common sentence. Not now, not then.
It has a feeling of philosophy.
So we need meta-thinking to make it work.
Hello, people and molluscs.
What are you contemplating?
Anonymous
Hello!
We are contemplating a contemplation sentence.
Anonymous
15:35
> Perhaps nowadays it is our demure contemplation of the Imperfect that the West and the East can meet in mutual consolation.
Anonymous
From The Book of Tea (1906).
Hmm.
Anonymous
I agree with "Hmm."
The that clause must be a complement to contemplation here?
Nobody knows.
15:37
> It is my contemplation that John and Margaret can be a match made in heaven.
I would not use such a complement to contemplation myself, but perhaps it is old fashioned?
Anonymous
That was my original guess.
Right.
And the modifier of the Imperfect makes this seem even less...current.
Anonymous
I think the author was well read and informed by an older literary style, perhaps containing language that was old even in 1906
We need context.
Anonymous
I can supply that if you give me a moment.
15:39
We have
It's on the web.
Not sure about the link.
Anonymous
There, too
Anonymous
> For Teaism is the art of concealing beauty that you may discover it, of suggesting what you dare not reveal.
> Wut
15:44
It's the art of two things, if I understand him correctly.
Yeah but
"it" ?
Anonymous
@Fantasier It refers to "beauty"
Teaism is the art of concealing, and of suggesting.
Ah, I just got Fantasier's question. :-)
Oh I was already reading it.
@snailboat Shouldn't it be "of concealing beauty that you may discover" (without it?)
15:45
@snailboat I read that as in order that.
Anonymous
@Cerberus Me too
But I see a couple of other iffy things.
Hmm...
One of which being that the Emperor is called the Sun of Heaven.
Is that correct?
Anonymous
@Cerberus The author's native language was Japanese, but he was a well-educated reader and writer of English
15:46
I have never heard this before.
@snailboat Yeah I suspected as much.
I couldn't find that sentence.
Anonymous
It's just a little bit earlier.
> At last the Yellow Emperor, the Sun of Heaven, triumphed over Shuhyung, the demon of darkness and earth. The Titan, in his death agony, struck his head against the solar vault and shivered the blue dome of jade into fragments.
A typo?
That is the only use of the Sun of Heaven.
(in my version)
Anonymous
15:48
Let's see.
Yeah that's what I read.
Anonymous
Yeah, it's Sun.
I am looking at the scanned version in Google Books.
Anonymous
By the way, this is a scary Pikachuu: encrypted-tbn3.gstatic.com/…
Hmm... looks a bit like Godzilla.
15:50
> the eye-sight
This sounds dubious.
> The Taoists... The Buddhists...
The Taoists may pass, but The Buddhists, in that order?
Isn't it similar to The Christians?
Anonymous
What's wrong with The Buddhists?
Anonymous
The eye-sight is funny, though.
Anonymous
I wonder if Sun of Heaven is a misspelling or an intentional pun
It think it's a misspelling.
Anonymous
15:54
But the same sentence uses solar and is generally sky-ful.
Son had never been spelled sun before?
@snailboat So do I.
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Well, we're talking a gap of hundreds of years here.
@snailboat Not sure how to explain it. At least I would correct it in modern prose.
Yes, so I'm not very sure to claim misspelling.
Anonymous
15:57
@DamkerngT. Well, sun wasn't an accepted spelling of son in 1906.
nods -- I see.
Anonymous
But if you say "had never been", you're considering spellings from hundreds of years before, and yes, you can find examples where it was spelled that way long ago
Anonymous
They're just not relevant in this case
Back then, reading ancient texts was probably the way he studied.
Anonymous
And it's 天子 (tiān​ zǐ)
Anonymous
15:59
Which means child of heaven
Anonymous
(Son of Heaven)
Son of Heaven, yes that's a common term for Chinese kings.
Yeah it's never Sun.

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