« first day (2436 days earlier)      last day (2790 days later) » 

11:00
@ACuriousMind yeah but my question clearly states derive from Newton's laws, not from something else
so I've already demonstrated what level I"m at
lol
@JohnRennie how come the peak wavelength the sun produces (500nm) isn't the same as the peak frequency of light the sun produces (340THz)?
user228700
@JohnRennie I know, and I watched it to check for this door but in all of them, they just walk right in; the door swings open automatically! (Sorry for the latency; had gone to driving class)
Are you learning to drive a standard transmission?
user228700
Do u mean a manual? If so, yep.
user228700
11:14
I'm almost done, actually; today was my second to last class.
do you practice on hills?
learning to drive is a waste of time
user228700
Nope. Why? O_O
in a year from now all cars will be controlled by google
user228700
@AccidentalFourierTransform OK why?
11:16
that's the trickiest part
@AccidentalFourierTransform more lik 10 years
@Kaumudi.H because troll
user228700
:-P
user228700
@JohnRennie I'm doing quite well now! :-D
@Kaumudi.H booked the test?
11:17
try to stop on a hill and then not roll backward when you start moving
user228700
Nope. That will be done by the driving school...
user228700
@user685272 Uhhh...handbrake?
no hand brake
user228700
What kind of car doesn't have a hand brake?
just your feet
they all do have a hand brake
11:18
I dont think you can use the handbrake with your feet
but Im no expert
user228700
@user685272 What izz problem, then?
this is the ultimate test of your mastery
user228700
@AccidentalFourierTransform I mean, maybe...
the last time I sat on the driver seat was when I took the test
never again
driving is stupid
the steeper the hill, the harder it is to do. without rolling backward
user228700
11:21
@user685272 But this is plain Physics; on certain hills, this is impossible to do without the handbrake.
@user685272 why would you not just use the handbrake? It's not the ultimate test of mastery, it's being obtuse.
I never need to use the handbrake
it can be done without the hand brake
user228700
@AccidentalFourierTransform Isn't there a statute of limitations on your driving license?
I find it easier to not use the handbrake to be honest
When you master the hill start without the handbrake, the handbrake just slows you down
11:22
^
@Kaumudi.H no idea
I dont drive
driving is for poor people
do you have a driver?
yeah he has a bus driver
no, I have a sister
is she poor
11:24
Hail to the bus driver, bus driver, bus driver
Hail to the bus driver, bus driver man
He screams and he cusses, he rams other busses
Hail to the bus driver, bus driver man
lol nice peom
user228700
Dammit, I wish I could get through that door...
That is a schoolyard rhyme
user228700
11:24
It's probably a glitch in my copy of the game.
Made famous in the Simpsons
Classic Simpsons
Oh god Carter's notation is so bad
How is your parallel parking? @Kaumudi.H They always test you on that :-)
$I^+(S,U)$ is noted as $\underset{U}{\prec} S )$
Have mercy
And I can't seem to be able to avoid Carter's notation because it is used uniquely to define n-degree causal relations
@JohnRennie In the same way as learning about the obtuse triangle is apart of trigonometry :-)
$$\overset{1}{<} S ) = \{ p \in M | (J^+(S) \cap \overline{J^-(p)}) \cup (\overline{J^+(S)} \cap J^-(p)) \neq \varnothing \}$$
I need to come up with a better notation
I'm not even quite sure what that set is supposed to be
11:47
@Slereah This is good
first class poetry
very Eliotesque
Here's a bad physics question: Suppose I have a bar of length $\ell$ which has uniformly distributed mass $m$, and it's lying on the ground (so the gravitational force acts uniformly perpendicular to it). Say it's positioned at the $x = 0$ line in the cartesian plane, and I want to move it to the $x = 1$ line. One way to do it is to apply an appropriate amount of force perpendicular to it through the center of mass (aka the midpoint of the bar).
On the other hand, I can apply a certain amount of force at one corner so that it gets a torque and that corner moves to the $x = 1$ line, and then do the same thing with the other corner. (I suppose there is a frictional force involved here to keep the other corner fixed, I dunno).
Is the latter in some way "physically easier" than the former? I just experienced this while moving my bed for cleaning.
So I want to know the rigorous physical reason behind this.
it involves torque
and a lot of QFT
First do you assume the spacetime it happens on to be globally hyperbolic
this is important
11:54
sigh
Please stop trolling people that come here with genuine questions.
I actually enjoyed the troll, and don't think it was harmful, but sure
the former case has no "lever arm," right?
Ah, yeah, that's the thing I suppose
Hm, so what exactly is one minimizing in the latter process? Work/time?
work = force X perp distance
11:59
@BalarkaSen Well, to tell whether it's physically "easier" you'd have to compute the work you put into it in both cases. Assuming you "barely" move the bed (i.e. not with any significant speed) In the first case you work against the frictional force over the distance $d = 1$, in the second case you work against the frictional torque over the two arcs the bed's ends sweep out
Hi all, does anyone know enough about string theory, holography and AdS/CFT to answer this question? physics.stackexchange.com/questions/343295/…
I don't see any "obvious" reason why the result of one of these computations should be lower than the other, though.
yeah I do @apt45
but if you're good at something never do it for free
@ACuriousMind how do I know if I'm done in Velen?
@Kenshin What did I just say about trolling people who come here with genuine questions?
12:01
I didn't see it I just joined the chat
can u ples repeat it?
are Wilson loops useful at all?
@ACuriousMind Am I really doing less (or more) work? It should be the same; I'd think I have to put the same amount of force to do the job in both cases and it moves the same distance.
@0celo7 When the only main story quest left points to Novigrad. Although to finish the baron's story you should also do the side quest "Return to Crookbag Bog"
I think it's something other than work that gets minimized.
@ACuriousMind I did that too.
12:02
@AccidentalFourierTransform Apparently if you want to prove confinement
@BalarkaSen Well, since we're working against friction in this case, the work done can be different although the final positions are the same.
The Fiend was pretty tough
@ACuriousMind Ahh
Enlightening comment, frictional force is indeed not conservative
The work would only be the same if all forces involved were conservative, which is decidedly not the case
@apt45 I guess this is one of the cases physicists abuse the meaning of the word "prove" :-P
12:03
all 4 feet of the bed are being dragged at once
@AccidentalFourierTransform ok, up to any proof of the holographic duality ;)
@ACuriousMind so how many endings are there?
@0celo7 So, what happened to the baron and Anna in your case?
@ACuriousMind Baron took his insane wife to the mountains
and she committed adultery
12:06
:O
@0celo7 Ah, well, that's the "nice" ending I guess, for some value of nice.
that value may be imaginary
perhaps even hypercomplex depending on her condition
@ACuriousMind what other endings are there?
@AccidentalFourierTransform I've reasoned myself into a corner trying to answer this question. The Ward identity naively applies to the fully resummed propagator. Or...does it? In a free theory, the "fully resummed" propagator is just the ordinary photon propagator $\frac{\eta^\mu\nu}{p^2}$. Contracting that with $p^\mu$ gives $p^\nu/p^2$, which doesn't vanish at all. What's going on?
I imagine she dies if you don't kill the tree spirit
12:09
@0celo7 Any less ass notation idea for this set?
Also the Crones are pretty damn sexy
$$\overset{1}{<} S ) = \{ p \in M | (J^+(S) \cap \overline{J^-(p)}) \cup (\overline{J^+(S)} \cap J^-(p)) \neq \varnothing \}$$
@ACuriousMind when do I get to kill the Crones?
@Slereah no
On phone, wtf is that
@ACuriousMind you know how the quantum action $\Gamma[\phi]$ works?
its the Legendre transform of $W=\log Z$
and the fully connected correlation functions are given by functional derivatives
@0celo7 Yes, but not an easy death. Do you want me to spoil or might you want to wait for a second playthrough in the future?
@0celo7 In due time
12:10
@0celo7 it's Carter's n-degree causal relation
@AccidentalFourierTransform Which one? The 1PI generating one?
It looks very bad
one can "prove" (modulo anomalies) that $\Gamma$ has the same symmetries than the classical action $S$
@ACuriousMind yep
wth is 0celo even playing
@AccidentalFourierTransform Yeah, I realize one can prove the statement in the path integral approach that way
12:11
@Slereah why is there a half open parenthesis
$\Gamma$ is nice because you can do pretend GR with it
@0celo7 You'll have to ask Carter about this
that means that all the fully connected functions satisfy the same relations than the standard functions
so if the $n$ point function is transverse
He also writes $I^+(S)$ as $\ll S )$
I'm less worried about answering the question as such and more worried that the frequent claim that "the fully resummed propagator obeys the ward identity" seems to be false.
its fully connected part is transverse as well
if you let $G_{\mu\nu}=\langle A_\mu A_\nu\rangle$ be the interacting (exact) two-point function
12:13
Hi @Blue
and $\Delta_{\mu\nu}=\langle A^0_\mu A^0_\nu\rangle$ the free propagator
Anonymous
@Mann If you consider friction to be applied force then the net virtual work won't be zero and that principle (in the screenshot) won't hold.
Anonymous
You need to understand the concept of virtual work first.
then you have $\partial_\mu G^{\mu\nu}=\partial_\mu \Delta^{\mu\nu}$
this is a consequence of Ward-Takahashi
god dammit
betrayed again
12:15
by?
and it holds in any gauge ($R_\xi$, Coulomb)
now if you let $\Pi_{\mu\nu}$ be the (amputated) irreducible two point function
@0celo7 What in the world
I am adrift at sea
you have $G^{\mu\nu}=\Delta^{\mu\nu}+\Delta^{\mu\rho}\Pi_{\rho\sigma}\Delta^{\sigma\nu}+\‌​Delta\Pi\Delta\Pi\Delta+\cdots$
Anonymous
12:16
@user685272 Hello
if you use this together with $\partial_\mu G^{\mu\nu}=\partial_\mu \Delta^{\mu\nu}$ you get $\partial_\mu\Pi^{\mu\nu}=0$
@0celo7 I think I will have to make the causality section into a part yeah
there is way too much shit
Or several chapters, at least
Maybe causal relations and then causal hierarchies
basically, $\Pi$ is transverse but $G$ is not
but the transverse part of $G$ is "trivial"
@ACuriousMind any idea why steam is no longer taking screenshots?
it is equal to the transverse part of the free propagator
the reason is that the transverse part of $A^\mu$, as an operator, is free
$\partial^2(\partial\cdot A)=0$
12:19
@AccidentalFourierTransform Yes, that's correct. But the texts claim "the fully resummed propagator obeys the Ward identity", which is false, unless they suddenly take that to mean the general Ward-Takahashi identity.
I guess I'll just have to write a rant that they're simply not explaining well what they're doing
yes, I would say they mean WT instead of just W
there is no consensus about what the W. identity actually is
some books consider W. to be $p\cdot \Pi=0$
some others consider it to be $p\cdot\mathcal M=0$
Okay, thanks, I needed to confirm I'm not going (more) insane.
@ACuriousMind But I am going insane!
@0celo7 I have no idea
12:22
As they say "crazy like a fox" :P
@ACuriousMind steam overlay is shift + tab, yes?
@0celo7 yup
@ACuriousMind it doesn't seem to work on any game
if $f$ is exact then in general $\int_{\mathbb R^n} f=0$. Under what conditions is the converse true, $\int_{\mathbb R^n} f=0\quad\Rightarrow \quad f=\mathrm d\phi$ (with smooth $f$ but not necessarily of compact support)?
we just need it to decay fast enough?
is that sufficient?
that's so wrong it's not even funny
TIL $\int_{\Bbb R^n}1=0$.
12:25
whoops
I meant exact
@0celo7 Strange. Have you tried to restart Steam? :P
If yes, check in the options if the "Steam overlay" is deactivated for some reason
"For any timelike submanifold $U$ of $M$, $$]\underset{U}{\succ} \subset ] \gg \subset \underset{U}{\prec}$$"
This is why notation is important
are those sexual hieroglyphs?
12:33
They are
@AccidentalFourierTransform is that first claim true in the case when $f$ is not compactly supported?
well, if it decays fast enough it should be true?
$f=\mathrm d\phi$, $\int_{\mathbb R^n} f=\int_{\partial\mathbb R^n} \phi=0$
:-P
$\partial \Bbb R^n$ is nonsense.
You need to do it as a limit of spheres with radius $\to\infty$.
So your $\phi$ needs compact support too.
$\partial \Bbb R^n = \varnothing$
Perfectly well defined
Just integrate on the empty set
I can imagine some situation where $\phi$ becomes constant at infinity though.
12:38
and $\mu [\varnothing] = 0$
So it's 100% true
Why is AdS/CFT so snubbed in PSE? :'(
I've got to get to work
@apt45 because it's not physics.
@0celo7 :O why do you say so? Maldacena would be very sad If he read your post
To hell with Macedonia
What was he thinking
12:43
symbolically?
Yes
This is one of the worst notation I've seen
is he a mathematician?
I'm not sure
Ah, I think I know a good notation for it
Apparently $J^+$ is the degree zero set
So I can probably write it as $J_n^ +$???
@apt45 unless you have made verifiable predictions, you're doing witchcraft, not physics
and as a Christian I abhor witchcraft
That way you can write it as $$J_n^+ = \{ p \in M | (\overline{J_{n-1}^+(S)} \cap J^-(p)) \cup (J^+(S) \cap \overline{J^-_{n-1}(p)}) \cup ( \bigcup_{r=1}^{n-1} \mathfrak{Whatever}) \neq \varnothing \}$$
12:52
flagged for obscenity
Apparently with those sets you can generalize the notion of closed timelike curves
I'm not 100% sure but I think globally hyperbolic spacetimes are such that its n-degree causal relations are virtuous
That is, $p \notin J^+_n(p)$ for all $n$
@Slereah @ACuriousMind do you use Geforce experience?
I do not
it's idea of "optimizing" games is to just turn off everything
@0celo7 I haven't found it of much use, so I've turned it off.
13:00
@ACuriousMind Does it update drivers automatically?
@0celo7 Yes
Or, well, it will alert you when new drivers are available, which you can then tell it to install
@ACuriousMind Then I'll keep it on. But the optimization does nothing when I can run all games (modulo Ass Creed Unity) on max settings anyway
I'm not so obsessed with my drivers being up to date, so I just check them manually once in a while
idk why it's telling me to turn off stuff
@ACuriousMind I have no idea what drivers being out of date means
sounds scary
Nah (unless there was a really critical bug). New drivers usually just have some more specific optimizations for new games/techniques
This answer now took me a much longer time to write than I care to admit (@AccidentalFourierTransform)
13:05
it seems you assumed $\xi=1$
the analysis holds for general $\xi$
you may want to mention that
I think I assumed "I don't care wtf $\xi$ is" ;P
@AccidentalFourierTransform Why are you deleting old, upvoted answers of yours which aren't wrong as far as I can see?
also, you have $(A+A^2+A^3+\cdots)p=0$, where the matrix $A$ is $A=p^{-2}\Pi$. This implies $\frac{Ap}{1-A}=0$, and therefore $Ap=0$, with no need to split $A$ into $f,g$
@AccidentalFourierTransform I strongly suspected OP would ask me for a proof of the matrix-valued geometric series if I did that :P
@ACuriousMind they were old, silly and useless answers
Ah, there's a decent explanation
If $p \leq_1 q$, it means that $p \in J^+(J^+(q))$
13:12
@ACuriousMind well, please prove that $\sum_{i=1}^\infty (f + gp^2)^i<\infty$
@AccidentalFourierTransform Yeah, you're right :D
or delet the answer
I think so, anyway
Hence that's why it corresponds to widening the causality slightly
blah blah analytic continuation
safe to eat?
I have nothing to eat
thankfully the yogurt is still good
long trips are terrible
@0celo7 full of healing penicillin
what flavour?
@user685272 mold
@Slereah You're eating mold yogurt? ;P
13:18
Isn't that what cheese is, in the end
@0celo7 not
@AccidentalFourierTransform thx, fixed
@ACuriousMind not really :-P
look at the $1+$ term
I used eggs last night and didn't check if they were good
13:20
I didn't shit my brains out so I guess it was all right
I can't indices
$P^{\mu\nu}(p) = \frac{\eta^\mu_\lambda}{p^2}1 +...$
👍👍
13:33
$$👍^{👍👍}(👍) = \frac{👍^👍_👍}{👍^2}1 +...$$
4
13:56
@ACuriousMind why do gross and groB have such different meanings
what is the etymology?
@0celo7 I think their etymology is the same - I don't know why the two words took on such different primary meanings in English and German.
But note that the English "gross" retains shades of the German groß, as in "gross mistake", which basically means big mistake
@ACuriousMind Mhm.
But things like "gross revenue" have a slightly different meaning still.
There's a "gross ton" also.
grotesque?
hi @EmilioPisanty
In English and related languages, several terms involving the words "great" or "gross" (possibly, from French: grosse thick) relate to numbers involving multiples of exponents of twelve (dozen): A gross refers to a group of 144 items (a dozen dozen or a square dozen). A great gross refers to a group of 1728 items (a dozen gross or a cubic dozen). A small gross or a great hundred refers to a group of 120 items (ten dozen). A gross may be abbreviated as "gr" or "gro". The continued use of these numbers in measurement and counting represents a continuation of the tradition of the duodecimal number...
14:14
@user685272 boring
The furlong/firkin/fortnight (FFF) system is a humorous system of units based on unusual or impractical measurements. The length unit of the system is the furlong, the mass unit is the mass of a firkin of water, and the time unit is the fortnight. Like the SI or metre–kilogram–second systems, there are derived units for velocity, volume, mass and weight, etc. While the FFF system is not used in practice, it has been used as an example in discussions of the relative merits of different systems of units. Some of the FFF units, notably the microfortnight, have been used jokingly in computer science...
can you see that^?
@user685272 yes
depending on what you mean by "see"
it stays stuck here
so I suspect you might want to classify that under "no"
In other news, I'm happy to see that the helen has not been removed from wikipedia
A helen is a humorous unit of measurement based on the concept that Helen of Troy, from the Iliad, had a "face that launched a thousand ships". The helen is thus used to measure quantities of beauty in terms of the theoretical action that could be accomplished by the wielder of such beauty. == Origin == The classic reference to Helen's beauty is Marlowe's lines from the 1592 play The Tragical History of Doctor Faustus, "Was this the face that launched a thousand ships / And burnt the topless towers of Ilium?" In the tradition of humorous pseudounits, then, 1 millihelen is the amount of beauty...
I want something with $\pi$ Helens
Trollface as universe explodes
Helen/0 = undefined real beauty
universe explodes because it is impossible to destroy $\pi$ cities
How do you accurately destroy 3.2 cities?
3 + 1/5 of a city
$$👍=\iiint \sum_{👍=👍^u👍}\omega_{👍}^{\int^{\int^{👍}d(👍^{e^e})}}+\frac{1}{👍+\frac{👍}{‌​0+2👍\frac{3}{4}}}\sqrt{\ln 👍}$$
@Secret those thumbs up are pretty hard to read
I wonder, though
$$\boldsymbol 👍$$
damn
$$\Large \mathbf{👍}$$
ah, much better
$${\Huge{🍆}}$$
14:38
\HUGE does not exist
because reasons
I mean, everything LaTeX does is infinitely logical and was baked in by design and if you disagree then you're wrong
so there must be some underlying reason why the largest typeface available is \Huge instead of \HUGE
NB $\int^{\int^{\int^{\int^\cdots}}}$ is actually valid. Let $F(x)=\int f(x)dx$. Then this nested integral means $F^n(x)=F(F(F(F(\cdots F(x)))))$
and indeed using \HUGE is just plain-wrong typesetting
Proof: I proved that in maths chat
@EmilioPisanty 🤔
in Mathematics, Jun 30 at 6:46, by Secret
$$S(n)(x)=\underbrace{\int_0^{\int_0^{\int_0^{\cdots^{\int_0^x x dx} x dx}x dx}x dx}x dx}_{ \text{n times}}$$
14:40
@0celo7 you hadn't heard?
in Mathematics, Jun 30 at 6:52, by Secret
$$S(n)(x)=\frac{x^{2n}}{2^{1+2+3+4+\cdots+n}}=\frac{x^{2n}}{2^{\frac{n(n-1)}{2}}‌​}$$
@EmilioPisanty the evidence seems to point to the opposite
Fake news?
@0celo7 that depends on where you get your evidence
try tex.se or their chat, for one
or more old-school like latexcommunity
or even TUG
$$🤷‍♂🤦‍♂?$$
apparently not
$$🤷‍🤦?$$
🤦🏿‍♂️
@EmilioPisanty boat?
14:51
143
A: Jokes in the sense of Littlewood: examples?

Zev ChonolesLet "$\int$" denote $\int_0^x$. We want to find the solution to $$\int f = f-1.$$ We simply "factor out" $f$, getting $1=\left(1-\int\right)f$. Thus, $f=(1-\int)^{-1}1$. Using the geometric series, $$f=\left(1+\int+\iint+\iiint+\cdots\right)1=1+\int_0^x1~dx+\int_0^x\int_0^x1~dx+\cdots$$ Thu...

Those aren't jokes, those are just physicist math
by mathematical physicists
$\begin{eqnarray} \omega'=\omega \end{eqnarray} \gamma\left(1-\beta\cos\theta\right)$ wft?
\begin{eqnarray} \omega'=\omega \end{eqnarray}
No $'s if you use begin and end
clap clap clap
14:58
@Slereah no, presumably OP just meant $\begin{eqnarray} \omega'=\omega \end{eqnarray} \gamma\left(1-\beta\cos\theta\right)$
but
why?
just
why?
also, "underling"?
> Jackson justifies this statement underling that the phase of a plane wave is proportional to the number of wave crests that have passed by the observer.
@AccidentalFourierTransform that's a good one. It's mathematically valid when the inverse kernal exist (I think tha's what it is called?) and indeed used in solving many integrodifferential equations
In mathematics, Fredholm theory is a theory of integral equations. In the narrowest sense, Fredholm theory concerns itself with the solution of the Fredholm integral equation. In a broader sense, the abstract structure of Fredholm's theory is given in terms of the spectral theory of Fredholm operators and Fredholm kernels on Hilbert space. The theory is named in honour of Erik Ivar Fredholm. == Overview == The following sections provide a casual sketch of the place of Fredholm theory in the broader context of operator theory and functional analysis. The outline presented here is broad, whereas...
The discrete analogue is the antidifference operator $\Delta^{-1}=\frac{1}{1-e^{D}}$
@EmilioPisanty "underlining"
@user685272 doesn't quite fit the bill, though
perhaps the text has it underlined
@user685272 it doesn't, I checked ;-)
my guess is OP's English isn't very good
I went ahead and fixed that and other errors
if OP minds, he can roll it back
15:06
:-D
15:54
fucking hell it's hot
Once I buy a flat I'm gonna get an AC
go to an air conditioned library
Anonymous
Stand in front of your refrigerator with the door open. :P
Anonymous
Or take an ice bath
do the salt and ice challenge all over your body

« first day (2436 days earlier)      last day (2790 days later) »