@Bass Well, that's the point - the K-M algebras are infinite-dimensional so you need to choose your notion of "infinite-dimensional Lie group" before you can even ask that question
In a sense, for instance, you could say that the Witt algebra (Virasoro algebra with vanishing central charge) is the algebra of the group of conformal transformations of a cylinder
@Bass I'm pretty sure there are some, but I'm also pretty sure people don't really agree on what it should be, just like people don't agree what an infinite-dimensional manifold should be to begin with
@Bass Ah, see, but it's already not clear that that's the correct notion. Maybe you want a Banach manifold - an infinite-dimensional Banach space has no countable basis in the sense of linear algebra.
@ACuriousMind I see, but there are infinite-dimensional vector spaces with countable bases, right? Like $L_2(\mathbb R)$. So that might be a possible definition, which is closer to the finite case.
@Bass The Hilbert bases you are thinking of are only countable because you are allowing infinite linear combinations of them, which is forbidden for bases in the sense of linear algebra
It's also not clear it's the wrong notion, either - it just goes to show that you can't just say "infinite-dimensional Lie group" and expect that notion to immediately make sense
@0celouvsky Yep. In QM-related subjects, I often hear "a basis" in the sense of Hilbert bases, because in that context it's much more natural than the requirement of finite linear combinations.
@Bass So what ACM is saying here is that you want your manifold to be locally homeomorphic to a topological vector space. In finite dimensions, these are always homeomorphic to $\Bbb R^n$, which is quite crazy. As soon as you go to infinite dimensions, this fails.
So there's no "unique" "model space" for your $\infty$-manifold.
All just subsets of Banach/Hilbert spaces to me, and you seem to continually forget I don't care about functional analysis all that much to begin with :P
In mathematics, Wedderburn's little theorem states that every finite domain is a field. In other words, for finite rings, there is no distinction between domains, skew-fields and fields.
The Artin–Zorn theorem generalizes the theorem to alternative rings: every finite alternative division ring is a field.
== History ==
The original proof was given by Joseph Wedderburn in 1905, who went on to prove it two other ways. Another proof was given by Leonard Eugene Dickson shortly after Wedderburn's original proof, and Dickson acknowledged Wedderburn's priority. However, as noted in (Parshall 198...
@0celouvsky I have a project due, the project statement/guide was on the prof's webpage. I finished it already and he re-released the guide with a bunch of shit changed
Text Book GR equation,
$$\frac{d^2x^{\mu}}{dq^2}+\Gamma^\mu_{\lambda\nu}\frac{dx^\lambda}{dq}\frac{dx^\nu}{dq}=0$$
Definition of Lambda seems to be tricky to find, what is lambda?
Could I get confirmation this expand to 16 equations, ...or maybe 64 equations dpending on what Lambda is?
So today i accidentally decided to see what math peeps call qft in hopes of possibly something I easy enough for me to look at and possible enrich my journey a bit. Well, I came across the mit ocw notes, and woit's syllabus. I know about quantum fields and strings, but I promised myself to not go near that text ever again
i see a lot and hear a lot about brst and cohomology . . . someday, I hope someone will tell me the secret
in some very intuitive baby format
without hardcore math,
@0celouvsky @ACuriousMind any suggestions about (soft) directions with baby steps about the brst and cohomology thing? Like real baby steps lol