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00:00
there's an exact formula for quartic equations
@0celo7 Does substituting $y=x^2$ make it a quadratic one? If no, are any of $-1,0,1$ roots?
If no to both, sucks to be you :P
Well it's very simple
Apparently the delta is just
@ACuriousMind that stubstitution works
wtf now I have to solve a quadratic
@ACuriousMind HELP
00:02
Y'know, the formula for quadratic equations is known in Germany as the Mitternachtsformel - "midnight formula"
Because you are expected to be able to recite it even if woken up in the middle of the night.
nie davon gehort
Ich denke du lugst
nur ein Mathe Professor kann das machen
Eine quadratische Gleichung ist eine Gleichung, die sich in der Form mit schreiben lässt. Hierbei sind Koeffizienten; ist die Unbekannte. Ist , spricht man von einer reinquadratischen Gleichung. Die linke Seite dieser Gleichung ist der Term einer quadratischen Funktion (allgemeiner ausgedrückt: ein Polynom zweiten Grades), ; der Funktionsgraph dieser Funktion im Kartesischen Koordinatensystem ist eine Parabel. Geometrisch beschreibt die quadratische Gleichung die Nullstellen dieser Parabel. == Allgemeine Form und NormalformBearbeiten == Die allgemeine Form der quadratischen Gleichung lautet…
^not lying :P
that's still BS
even if I memorize it I still won't be able to use it...
no real solutions
great
according to my calculations no orbits are possible with real initial velocities
seems legit
indeed!
let's try hyperbolic next
00:07
Too bad
I didn't really want to crash in the sun
hyperbolic is possible
parabolic is possible
welp
I give up
either I'm wrong or Newton
and sadly I think he was smarter
Hm
Apparently Penrose calls a normal convex neighbourhood a "simple region"
penrose is a woo peddler
He is actually
But mostly about consciousness
if physics can't be understood by a dumb German middle schooler
00:14
On GR he's fine
it ain't physics
it's woo
Is Duffield a German middle schooler
don't think so
he'd've flunked out by now
@dmckee is "he'd've" real
@HDE226868 hey
astro nerd
I need your help
@TanMath Yesterday.
@0celo7 Ooh, interesting. Go on.
Ah, you've been doing orbital mechanics.
@HDE226868 would you believe it if told you, for $F=-k/r^2$ that $$1-e^2=\frac{2h^2}{rk}-\frac{h^2v^2}{k^2}$$
00:19
@0celo7 Casual, but real enough for me. Which is to say that it can be written as $a + i\epsilon$.
$e$ is the eccentricity, $h$ is angular momentum per unit mass
my ODE prof loves orbital mechanics
I think his time at the Max Planck gravity place ruined him
@0celo7 $r$ being the distance, and $k$ an arbitrary constant?
@HDE226868 k is the constant in the force
$r$ is the distance, yes.
@dmckee why don't you \mathrm your imaginary unit
@0celo7 Lazy. Hadn't thought of it. Distracted. I have any number of excuses.
@ACuriousMind for the record, I did know about that substitution, it was an attempt to make light of my failure to study for an exam
@dmckee you do it in general?
00:23
@HDE226868 oh.. ok!
I don't write things in complex form in LaTeX often enough to have a habit.
@0celo7 It's making some sense. Working from$$\epsilon=-(1-e^2)\frac{\mu^2}{2h^2}=-\frac{\mu}{2r}$$is the way, I'm assuming? Here, $\epsilon$ is specific orbital energy.
@HDE226868 would you also believe me if I told you $h=rv\sin\alpha$, where $\alpha$ is the angle from the radial vector to the velocity
@HDE226868 dunno what $\mu$ is
probably some reduced mass thing
@0celo7 That sounds about right.
@0celo7 Nope, sum of the standard gravitational parameters ($GM$).
Gotta go to dinner; I'll think it over.
@HDE226868 so if I told you $$1-e^2=\frac{2rv^2\sin^2\alpha}{k}-\frac{r^2v^4\sin^2\alpha}{k^2}$$
@HDE226868 NO
that's not my question
do you believe that last equation
which I have so carefully derived
@HDE226868 uh, test body does not contribute, so its mass never comes in
I think
yeah, I'm going everything per unit mass
@Slereah I once programmed by Ti-84 to do that
took about an hour to type it in
was very very difficult
00:42
I should make a shortcut for $\mathcal{M}$
I use it a lot
@0celo7 Yeah, I know. Dinner called.
@HDE226868 should I get kid diddler or gay hating tonight?
Subway vs. Chick-Fil-A
@0celo7 Okay, why are there two terms here? If I use$$h=\sqrt{a(1-e^2)G(M+m)}$$then I have$$1-e^2=\frac{h^2}{G(M+m)}=\frac{rv^2\sin^2\alpha}{k}$$
I'm missing a factor of $2$, and the entire second term.
By the way, I hate your notation.
lemme see if that gives the correct answer
no need for attacks here
00:51
@0celo7 . . . Yes. What equation did you start from?
that's wrong too
guys
I have a confession
I still don't know what the exponential map is in GR, exactly
@Slereah me too
@Slereah lol
I know it's a mapping from the tangent space to the manifold
But that's about it
@Slereah we'll discuss it later
00:52
I assume exponentials are involved
Nah, I'll look it up
Gotta do some proofs with convex normal hoods
you basically go along a geodesic
for some time
and then you get a point
I should also make a shortcut for "convex normal neighbourhood"
\hood
and this point is unique in a small nbd
@HDE226868 uh
$G_{\mu\nu}=T_{\mu\nu}$
then I made some simplifications
@Slereah For Riemannian geometry, the exponential map $T_x M\to M$ maps a tangent vector $v$ to the point that lies at the end of the geodesic of length $\lvert v \rvert$ in the direction of $v$. For Lorentzian geometry, this is no longer accurate because vectors can have length 0, but the idea is still "Just march in the direction of $v$".
got to $\epsilon =v^2/2-k/r$
00:54
@0celo7 Haha. But I'm being serious. There are loads of expressions for $1-e^2$; you could start with any one of them and try your luck.
@0celo7 Okay, that's right.
Specific orbital energy.
deciphering my class notes here
wtf is happening here
Ohhhh. . . Did you set that equal to$$-\frac{\mu^2}{2h^2}(1-e^2)$$?
Yes. You did. There you are.
I don't know what this $\mu$ thing is
That should give you the right answer.
is that not what I had above
00:56
@0celo7 It's $k$; I just refuse to succumb to your notation.
@HDE226868 this is standard notation for classical mechanics in math books
oh
I used the polar requation
solved for $\cos\theta$
@0celo7 Do the substitution. Start with$$1-e^2=\left(\frac{v^2}{2}-\frac{k}{r}\right)\left(-\frac{2h^2}{k^2}\right)‌​$$Then just substitute in everything.
took a derivative
then used $\sin^2+\cos^2=1$
then some algebra
@ACuriousMind But what is the map itself
@HDE226868 that's exactly what I had...
00:58
I know that generally there's an exponential map between manifolds and tangent spaces
and that's wrong!
@Slereah I don't understand the question.
You'll end up with what you got here. So yes, I believe that step.
But I only know it for Lie manifolds
MAYBE THE BOOK IS WRONG
00:59
@Slereah Ah!
screw you book
Well for Lie manifolds, the exponential map is like
$e^{\tau_i x^i}$
@0celo7 I'm getting exactly what your first equation said.
Wuth $\tau$ the generators of the group
or algebra
whatever
@HDE226868 no, the answer of this exercise
01:00
@0celo7 Well, what are you supposed to find? I don't think you ever told me that.
You just asked me if the equations made sense.
They do.
@HDE226868 given $e=1/2$ and $\vec v_0\bot \vec r$, find $v_0$
@Slereah Ah, well, it is the "exponential", because for a unit vector $v$, you have $\partial_t \exp_x(vt)\lvert_{t=0} = v$, which is what the exponential generally has, too, and in the case of Lie groups, it is indeed the actual power series
I see
But, in general, you can't write the map any different than this "solve for the geodesic, go to the end-point"
01:02
Why not
Can't you use like
The generators of the Poincaré group
There is no formal expression that magically turns a tangent vector into a point on the manifold
Or something
I dunno
For Lie groups, both the group and the tangent space are matrices of the same dimensionality, so formal expressions like the power series for the exponential have a chance to turn a tangent object into a point
@0celo7 Ah, so you need $\theta$, because $\vec{v}_{0_{\bot}}=\vec{v}_0\sin\theta$.
But for a general manifold, you don't have such a thing, the elements of the manifold are just...points, there is no further structure
01:03
@HDE226868 that's just 90 degrees
Too bad
because I know what direction it is pointing in
@ACuriousMind yes there is
@0celo7 Enlighten me, then!
solve the geodesic equation in closed form
easy
01:06
I don't see what the issue is.
@ACuriousMind will you please explain what the "..." means
Is that wrong?
@0celo7 I said this:
4 mins ago, by ACuriousMind
But, in general, you can't write the map any different than this "solve for the geodesic, go to the end-point"
Or just stupid?
And you tell me "no, you're wrong", and then say exactly the same thing
@ACuriousMind :D
I didn't see that
I sory
0
Q: Daniel Thomas Sank - a psychopatic monster that moderates physics.stackexchange.com

Victor SpaskiIf you see this message save it immediately because Daniel Thomas Sank will delete the topic soon. Do not be discouraged by the erratic comments of the users: Gert, dmckee, ACuriousMind. The real name of the man hiding behind these sock-puppets is Daniel Thomas Sank. He is a known psychopathic ...

All true
01:09
Seriously, what is it with that guy?
Who the hell upvoted that???
@ACuriousMind : Yes, what is it, DANIEL SANK
Dun dun duuuun
GONE
WOW
that was quick
Automatic deletion by rude/spam flags.
The system works.
I wonder who that Daniel Sank *sshole is, anyway
Seems to be a real tyrant
@HDE226868 I would be forever grateful if you were to solve that problem
and tell me what you got
so I can confirm my sanity
I asked by study buddy from the class and she didn't get it either
but she doesn't know what she got
so your answer would be appreciated
01:14
@0celo7 Okay, so $h_0=v_{0_{\bot}}r$, which you know. If you knew $\mu$, then you could solve for $v$, by the equations for specific orbital energy.
Can we make any assumptions about $\mu$ whatsoever?
@Slereah No, you brought this on yourself :D
Shouldn't be too hard, I suppose
i just have to prove it is < 0
@HDE226868 Uh I'll give you the full problem statement.
01:16
$$v=\sqrt{2 \left( -\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mu^2}{v_{\bot}^2r^2} (1-e^2)+\frac{\mu}{r} \right) }$$
Note they're dumb mathematicians and mixed up pounds and slugs
How do you even deal with composition of trig functions
@Slereah Reluctantly.
01:17
I think they're fun!
Pain is fun!
I guess my best bet is going to exponentials
@0celo7 You didn't mention that the particle's mass is given, nor that $r$ and $F$ are given!
I thought that was implied
I guess for a start I should plot it, see if it's actually correct :p
I don't see anything given for $v_{\bot}$, though.
01:20
You just know the direction
Wait a moment
It's not at all!
@HDE226868 did I mention it's number 3
@0celo7 So that should be enough, right? You can just substitute in the expression for $h$ as a function of $r$, then rearrange and solve.
@0celo7 I figured that one out.
@HDE226868 I know it's enough.
I also got an answer.
The issue is that my answer is wrong
What answer did you get?
And what is the correct answer?
01:23
I'm at Chick Fil A
Will tell you when I get home
How do you make a non time orientable spacetime
See, I was gonna vote for Subway. . . Although I have teammates who swear by Chick-Fil-A.
Literally no book that mentions them offer an example
the closest that does only gives vectors and their product
Not the metric itself
hm
what to do
I guess take those vectors as basis
Then switch the basis to something more reasonable
@0celo7 Okay, if I help you solve this, will you answer my question about the use of the $\text{co}$ notation in sets?
I would find it very easy to think that the people who ask homework questions here have really bad teachers because they so often frame things in ways that are wrong before they even start.
01:27
@HDE226868 you're implying I know what that is
Let's see, that would be... $ds^2 = -2 dX_1 dX2$
Except that my student do the same thing, even after I have tried to convince them that correct structure will lead to understanding.
Alas, they only see the immediate bother, and can't seem to imagine what the beneficial end result would be.
2 days ago, by HDE 226868
I came across the equation$$\partial f(x)=\text{co}\left\{ \lim_{i\to+\infty}\mathrm{d}f(x_i)|x_i\mapsto x,x_i\notin S\cup\Omega_f \right\}$$Does anyone have an idea what the $\text{co}$ means?
And $X_1 = \cos(x) \partial_x + \sin(x) \partial_y$, $X_2 = -\sin(x) \partial_x + \cos(x) \partial_y$
@HDE226868 book: 5.48 ft/sec, me: 2.24 or 3.87 ft/sec
@HDE226868 yeah, I dont know what that is
we can think about it
01:29
@Slereah Googling "not time orientable spacetime" gives me a hit in HE where they say "The simplest such identification [of deSitter] is that of antipodal points on the hyperboloid. The resulting space is not time orientable;[...]" so your assertion that no book offers an example is false :P
Hm
I should try that I guess
I like how my notation is standard here
@HDE226868 Where the hell did you find that?
What page of HE is it btw
is that like the anlysis def of a partial derivative?
01:31
@Slereah Google books is buggy and doesn't show the page numbers. Can you follow this link?
If yes, bottom of the page.
I'll find it with the diagrams I guess :p
@ACuriousMind That would be here. Page 8. The same paper that had the statement about the affine Grassmannian of line on $\mathbb{R}^2$.
@0celo7 Aw, they couldn't have gone with SI units?
@HDE226868 no
(it is page 130)
@0celo7 Give me ten minutes or so. I'll solve in SI units and then do the conversion.
01:35
@HDE226868 why do you need to convert anything
you don't need G
read the problem again
@0celo7 You need $\mu$, right? For that, you need $G$.
@HDE226868 I'm 95% certain that $\mathrm{co}$ denotes the convex hull.
@HDE226868 you have the force
it's 100/r^2
@0celo7 Yeah, but . . . oh, I did it the longer way. Never mind.
@0celo7 Okay, I'm getting 9.36 feet per second, which is clearly wrong.
Oh, wait, did something wrong.
Apparently there's a whole paper on it
"Relativistic space forms" by Calabi
you know, I wonder when GR people started going all topological
This 61 paper starts with the usual spiel
"A Lorentz manifold $M^n$ is a differentiable n-manifold bla bla bla"
01:45
Okay, now I'm getting ~53 feet per second.
@HDE226868 lol
order of magnitude difference
"A Lorentz manifold Mn is called isochro- nous (time sense conserved), isochirous (reversing time whenever orientation is reversed), orientable, or proper (isochronous and orientable, and hence isochirous), in case the holonomy group belongs to the correspond- ing subgroup of the Lorentz group."
No it's not
You liar
what the heck are they talking about
Who knows
"DEFINITION. A relativistic space form is a complete Lorentz manifold of constant curvature."
It must be so embarrassing to make up a definition and nobody uses it
Ooh, now I'm getting 9.92. I'm just completely messing up plugging things in.
01:49
@HDE226868 lol
@ACuriousMind what is that
@0celo7 The smallest convex set containing the set.
"Non-isochronous relativistic spherical space forms"
This is what the nomenclature looked like before Hawking Ellis
People made up whatever they wanted!
@ACuriousMind what is a convex set
@0celo7 A set that is convex
@ACuriousMind I have a c word for you...
01:51
Don't you need a topology to define convexness
wtf is convex
@0celo7 cuddly?
@ACuriousMind you're a skeli
a skellington?
not cuddly
Bohnenstange
01:52
Okay, so$$\frac{v^2}{2}-\frac{\mu}{r}=-\frac{\mu}{2a}$$But $a=r$, so$$\frac{v^2}{2}=\frac{\mu}{2r}$$so$$v=\sqrt{\frac{\mu}{r}}=17.46\text{ feet/second}$$
when did you use $e$
I think "Isochronous" is supposed to be time orientable, "isochirous" is space orientable and "orientable" is spacetime orientable
also what is that first equation
Oh, wait. It's not true that $a=r$. Scratch that.
@HDE226868 it is not
$r=a(1\pm e)$
01:54
So$$v=\sqrt{2\left(\frac{\mu}{a(1\pm e)}-\frac{\mu}{2a}\right)}$$
But we know $r$, not $a$. That means that$$a=\frac{r}{1\pm e}$$
what is that first equation you keep using
Let's say it's $+e$. Then we have$$v=\sqrt{2\left(\frac{\mu}{r}-\frac{\mu(1+e)}{2r}\right)}$$
@0celo7 Hold on. I'll get back to that.
Okay, now I have 8.73.
you've had five answers :D
Now 12.35 (that wasn't 8.73) or ~21.
lol
01:59
In the gravitational two-body problem, the specific orbital energy (or vis-viva energy) of two orbiting bodies is the constant sum of their mutual potential energy () and their total kinetic energy (), divided by the reduced mass. According to the orbital energy conservation equation (also referred to as vis-viva equation), it does not vary with time: where is the relative orbital speed; is the orbital distance between the bodies; is the sum of the standard gravitational parameters of the bodies; is the specific relative angular momentum in the sense of relative angular momentum divided by...
@ACuriousMind is just shaking his head, thinking "why would anyone use numbers"

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