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09:55
morning
10:42
Hi
Can anyone help me with this thread of mine:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/842888/notation-action
@DIRAC1930 I would say is the conservation of a physical quantity as a result of the invariance of Lagrangian under some transformation. i.e invariance of it under rotation is associated with angular momentum conservation
@imbAF didn't the comments help already?
What? I was replying to a question DIRAC1930 asked me
But I just saw it now in my notifications
no I meant the comments under your question
Die Variationsrechnung ist ein mathematisches Teilgebiet der Analysis, in welchem kleine Änderungen in Funktionen und Funktionalen studiert werden, um Minima und Maxima von Funktionalen zu bestimmen. Dieses (unendlichdimensionale) Optimierungsproblem mit Anwendungen in der theoretischen und der mathematischen Physik wurde um die Mitte des 18. Jahrhunderts insbesondere von Leonhard Euler und Joseph-Louis Lagrange zu einem Fachgebiet entwickelt. Die Variationsrechnung, ihre verwandten Themen und Anwendungen sind Gegenstand aktueller Lehre, Weiterentwicklung und Forschung. Die Frage „Wie können die…
the german Wiki article is really good I think
One of the commets made it seem that is wrong to consider a system of N fields
and talk about the variation of the action
But, in theory, that shouldn't be a mistake
I don't understand. If you understood the variational principle with one degree of freedom in classical mechanics it should be easy easy to generalize it with $N$ degrees of freedom
and the situation is completely analogous to the field case
so: Do you really understand the content of e.g. the Wiki article I've linked?
10:50
I mean I understand it
Yes but still I have things that are unclear to me.
And I present my confusion with the questions that I ask
OK. So now do the same steps with two DOF, for example. And then try to re-do in field theory. You will see it is completely analogous.
The fact that for L(q,\dot q, \nabla q) I was able to derive an expression for $\delta S$, which is the same as the one in the wiki article for Hamilton principle
Unfortunately I don't really understand your posted question
it should highlight that I have an understating
@TobiasFünke for example which one?
@TobiasFünke Well I did that, that is the first part of m thread. Now I want a confirmation from people who know more, and also I want to know whether the notation used by me, is accurate or correct
Your question is very hard to understand because you've put a lot of equations into it but fundamentally you simply seem to have misunderstood the notation from the Wiki article (once again, Wiki is not a good resource to learn things you don't know yet from scratch)
10:58
@imbAF I do not understand the post. It is hard for me to follow your thoughts, sorry.
Actually, even in my lecture notes, when $\delta S$ was derived, the lecturer considered the case $L(q(t,\vec x),\dot q, \nabla q)$. An over simplified case. I wanted to generalize it to considering vectors
There is no such thing as $\frac{\delta S}{\delta \vec q}$ or $\frac{\partial L}{\partial \vec q}$ in careful notation. Equations like $\frac{\delta S}{\delta \vec q} = 0$ in the Wiki article are simply shorthand for the $n$ equations $\frac{\delta S}{\delta q^i} = 0, i = 1,\dots, n$, where the variations/derivatives are completely ordinary w.r.t. a number $q^i$
you don't need to understand "differentiation w.r.t. a vector" or anything
@imbAF but this is not what the wiki article states
it considers $n$ DOF
yes, exactly what ACM said.
your question is very long but really the only thing I got from it is that you didn't understand that part
Ok, but consider the following case
$S[\vec q + \delta\vec q]$ where $\vec q=(q_1,....q_N)$
Now, in general when you have a function of the form:
$f(x+\delta x)=f(x)+f'(x)\delta x + ...$
Now, if I want to do the same for $S[\vec q + \delta\vec q]=[q]+ \sum_{i=1}^N\frac{\delta S}{\delta q_i}\delta q_i + ...$
would it be accurate?\
11:03
If you understood the derivation of the one-variable case, you should be able to derive the n-variable case.
@ACuriousMind that's what I pointed out already ^^
That is what I think I am doing
above
No, you're asking us if it's "accurate"
you're not trying to derive the equation
you're just asking if it'S true
lmao
Yes, I ask for a confirmation after what I think I did was the derivation
but if you understood why these Taylor-series-like equations hold in the simpler cases, you should be able to understand why or why not they hold in this more complex case
11:05
@imbAF what does the q in the brackets mean?
I already gave that $\vec q=(q_1,....q_N)$
How exactly isn't this clear?
I am confused. What am I saying that is so unclear
You wrote [𝑞]
Could you please not be so hostile? I am trying to understand what you are doing here
Ahhh, I see
It's a typo. It is meant to be $S[q]$
11:07
Ok
Just a minor thing to point out. I wouldn't call $\partial/\partial\vec{q}$ an uncareful notation . It's just an alternate notation for $\nabla_{\vec{q}}$
But I cannot edit it now
@SignorFeynman but that would be the directional derivative in the direction of the vector field $\vec q$, that's not what is meant here
@ACuriousMind some use that notation for the gradient :P
well those some are bad at notation :P
11:09
The subscript is just there because you only take a "partial" gradient (i.e. not respect to all variables)
I would call it bad notation because it is unclear lol --of course just IMHO
in any case, for what I said it doesn't really matter if you agree with my opinion about the notation :P
@ACuriousMind Indeed, but I learned about it way before I used the connection symbol
$\nabla$
It could be nastier looking, like $\mathrm{grad}_{\vec{q}}$
@SignorFeynman unaesthetic as it is, at least it's unambiguous :P
If Weinberg were among us, we could ask him advice about the worst possible notation
11:11
I have done, taylor expansion for the multipole case, and of course the higher the order the more "under sum" terms you have. It's just different with functional
But ok
@SignorFeynman Weinberg has an extremely consistent approach to notation (which happens to produce abominations): You just write out every index and every dependency on every variable explicitly.
That's good actually. Then you can introduce a simple symbol to replace one with many symbols, and the reader has an idea of what that simple symbol contains or implies
That is actually very good
no, it's atrocious because you can't read equations with 6 indices on every symbol, the human mind is not made for it :P
Hm, I guess I'm calling Weinberg an alien with that
Perhaps the truth is more nuanced? No, it's the other physicists who are aliens!
@ACuriousMind AHAHAHAAH thinking about it, it's so true
So simple and yet so excruciating
My biggest gripe with that is when you have functional derivatives and write the argument of the field
@SignorFeynman I'm afraid to say that makes a certain amount of sense to me. Like, the basic property physicists want to use is $\frac{\delta \phi(x)}{\delta \phi(x')} = \delta(x-x')$. Ignoring the already horrible use of $\delta$ in two meanings here, how do you write that without the field argument?
like, I wouldn't use that notation if I'm dealing with the theory of variational calculus rigorously, but for the way physicists do it, I think it's clear why the notation is like that
11:30
When I have an operator in Schrodinger picture $\hat A_s$ and I want it in Heisenberg picture:
why does $\hat A(t)_H= U^\dagger \hat A_S \hat U$ change from time indepentant to time dependant operator?
@User198 It's not clear what you're asking. If you write $A(t)_H$ on the l.h.s., you should also write $U^\dagger(t)$ and $U(t)$ on the r.h.s. What's the question, exactly?
Why does acting on the $\hat A_S$ with unitary operators in such a fashion turn it into a $A(t)$ ?
Should I just regard it as a definition?
That's why I said you should also write $U(t)$
of course, if you let time-dependent operators $U(t)$ act on the time-independent $A_S$, the result is itself time-dependent in general
it's not clear what more of a "why" you're looking for
I am looking for some motivation on why do we do $U(t)^\dagger$ on the left of it and $U(t)$ on the right of $\hat A_S$, it seems out of the blue.
So just because $U(t) is time dependant it turns $\hat A_S$ into a time dependant quantity?
You're not really asking why it's "time-dependent"
11:36
@ACuriousMind it does, in the sense that it works with distributions and makes things easier, without having to differentiate integral functionals only. That being said, it's the same degree of wrong of conflating $f$ and $f(x)$, which I think that can lead to some confusions with notation, especially if you learn directly that way
you want to know why this specific $A_H(t)$ is something we should consider
then the question becomes: How do you even know about this equation of $A_H(t)$ without having derived it, apparently?
If you learn directly to functionally differentiate like that, you will get stuff like $\nabla\delta(x-y)$, which makes me uncomfortable without an integral
Much more than a normal delta :P
@SignorFeynman Why? Just like the $\delta$ gives the value at a point when integrated against a function, its derivatives give the values of derivaties at a point. There's nothing wrong with it
The derivatives of the $\delta$ are perfectly well-defined even in the rigorous theory of distributions
Hm. My question is than this:

When considering a unitary transformation of a state $\psi$ if we want $\psi '$ we get it by $\psi '= \hat U(t) \psi$. Ok.

For operators we do:

$\hat A'=\hat U \hat A U^\dagger$

Why do we do it in that way for transforming operators?
@User198 That means you have not seen any derivation of the Heisenberg equation of motion?
11:45
It reminds me of kind of when you act on a vector with a rotation matrix from one side and its transponse on the left to make a rotation.
Texts usually don't drop the formula for $A_H$ in terms of $U$ and $A_S$ out of the blue, but they derive it, so I'm puzzled where this question comes from
@ACuriousMind well, actually there should be a minus due to integration by parts
@SignorFeynman as usual I am talking modulo signs :P
@SignorFeynman and actually, the "integration by parts" is just a mnemonic :p. the derivative of distribution is defined to be as it is
For the case of the delta, it appears or not depending on whether you differentiate wrt $x$ or $y$
@TobiasFünke I forgot the " "
11:51
yeah yeah, I just wanted to join the nitpicking :d hehe
for instance, in terms of expectation values, it's easy to see that this is the only possibility: For a Schrödinger picture density matrix $\rho(t) = U^\dagger(t) \rho U(t)$ and a Schrödinger picture operator $A$ we have $\langle A\rangle (t) = \mathrm{Tr}(U^\dagger(t) \rho U(t) A)$ as the expectation value of $A$ at time $t$. This expression is not picture-dependent.
In the Schrödinger picture you package the first three terms in the trace into the $\rho(t)$, in the Heisenberg picture you use cyclicity of the trace and then package the last three terms in $\mathrm{Tr}(\rho U(t)AU^\dagger(t))$ into the Heisenberg operator $A_H(t)$.
That minus would be the one of $\nabla_x\delta^3(\vec{x}-\vec{y})=-\nabla_y\delta^3(\vec{x}-\vec{y})$
And since I'm obsessed with minus signs, I hate that :P
some would even call them lowered minus sign to added a lord-like tone to the obsession :P
I didn't understand, but I read that with in a upper-class British accent
With a disgusted tone for "lowered"
11:59
you got it, then
but...why is the minus sign "lowered"? It's just a minus.
because you haven't seen the raised minus and plus signs before numbers
they're found in old text
do you mean that?
holy
2
Q: About the raised negative sign in some basic textbooks

cormullionIn a math document recently (a UK A level test paper from the EdExcel board), I noticed that the negative/minus sign was raised and aligned to the top of the number. I'm interested to know whether this is a local or regional habit, how common or widespread it is, and whether it's considered a goo...

pretty much faded away by now
12:25
No until now. I think I understand it now. We use unitary transformations because they preserve the inner product, so measurements will always be correct.

And it is U dagger on the left because that is how a bra transforms under a unitary transformation and U on the right because that is how a ket transforms under a UT.
2.) Do some people do unitary transformations on the Hamiltonian, and calculate the evolution on a system that way, instead of solve the Schrodinger equation?
@User198 what do you mean?
Why should $UHU^*$ give the same as the SE?
I read this on the wiki en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
Often, however, the Schrödinger equation is difficult to solve (even with a computer). "Therefore, physicists have developed mathematical techniques to simplify these problems and clarify what is happening physically. One such technique is to apply a unitary transformation to the Hamiltonian. Doing so can result in a simplified version of the Schrödinger equation which nonetheless has the same solution as the original."
yes you can do that (what is described in the Wiki article)
but what you asked seems not to be what Wiki says?!
why is everyone here trying to learn physics from Wiki intros :P
12:29
I don't get it either
Wikipedia is not a textbook, it will not teach you an actual, coherent understanding physics at the same level as a lecture or textbook
Yes yes I understand that. But it is a super fast resource
But I agree with you 100%
picking random articles and acting as if the colloquial sentences in the intros (Wiki intros are intentionally not written to be technical) can be picked apart or interpreted in a direct technical sense is not useful
+++
@User198 super fast but as it seems super fast to misunderstand (?)
True true
12:33
I find engaging with the questions this generates very difficult. The questions use all the technical terms you learned from Wikipedia, but there is none of the technical understanding behind using that term I would expect a student of physics to have. So I answer as I would answer a student, and what ensues is a lengthy conversation full of confusion
yes
Anyway, what the Wiki article is about that you can change the problem of determining the evolution of a state by transforming both the Hamiltonian and the state
and then it sometimes is easier to solve this transformed problem, and then simply use the inverse transformation to get the evolution you are actually interested in
Rabi Oscillations is the typical intro example
@ACuriousMind Understandable. I will restrain for asking such questions furthermore. Although some of the answers I got in this chat were helpful, so I am thankful for that.
@TobiasFünke Ah ok thanks.
13:11
On the topic of functionals, would it be right to say that action variation, is the variation of a functional that takes a vector valued function as an argument?
$S$ takes as input some path /function (which indeed can be vector-valued)
the first variation of a functional is a functional again
the first variation of a functional?
...
Ok
How do you define variation?
You mean $\delta S$?
what is action variation?
13:17
$\delta S$
what does $\delta S$ mean, mathematically?
A change/variation of the value of the functional, for a change in value of the function, that the functional takes as an argument
I can guess what you mean, but that is not mathematically precise
do you recognize what you say in the equation/definition here? :
In applied mathematics and the calculus of variations, the first variation of a functional J(y) is defined as the linear functional δ J ( y ) {\displaystyle \delta J(y)} mapping the function h to δ J ( y , h ) = lim ε → 0 J ( y + ε h...
It's a bit confusing because it mentions the linear functional $\delta J(y)$ but afterwards it considers $\deltaJ(y,h)$
But other than that, yes, I am familiar with the expression
good
$\delta J(y): h\mapsto \deltaJ(y,h):=\ldots$ where $\ldots$ means the definition given in the article.
although I don't think it has to be linear (but we should anyway ignore this for now)
Re-reading your question, I guess one can safely ignore the first part of the sentence, and the question thus reads: would it be right to say that action functional takes a vector valued function as an argument --- ? is that your question? I don't see why you would bring the variation here into play
13:31
Just to add something, in case is of importance. In the lecture, we considered a slightly different way of expressing (first) variation:
For $F(f)$
$\frac{\delta F}{\delta f(x)}=\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow 0}\frac{F[f(x')+\epsilon\delta(x-x')]}{\epsilon}$
yes, that is the "physicist way"
In the calculus of variations, a field of mathematical analysis, the functional derivative (or variational derivative) relates a change in a functional (a functional in this sense is a function that acts on functions) to a change in a function on which the functional depends. In the calculus of variations, functionals are usually expressed in terms of an integral of functions, their arguments, and their derivatives. In an integrand L of a functional, if a function f is varied by adding to it another function δf that is arbitrarily small, and the resulting integrand is expanded in powers of δf,...
@TobiasFünke yes, that is my question.
@imbAF ... but then why not formulate it so simple?
Because we are in the topic of variation
and you for sure know the answer already. You yourself this morning wrote $S(q)$ where $q$ was a vector valued function
13:33
Correct
Good
So can you ask your question again, in a precise way?
My question has to do with the variation, in the end but I would say
For a functional, that has a vector valued function as an argument, how to get the expression for the first variation of it?
why do you think it would look different?
Nothing apart from the notation, to signalize that, the argument is a vector value function
And that is what interests me. The notation
13:49
I cannot follow what you are trying to ask here
Why don't you ask this then directly?
And what do you mean with you are interested in the notation. You can use whatever you want. There is no fixed notation
Ok, I will ask directly
This expression doesn't satisfy me. I want to know how the expression looks like, when we EXPLICITLY write down the components of the vector valued function, that is the argument of the functional S.
Why not taking $N=2$, and start from the definition
to see
@imbAF The $\cdot$ in the last expression are scalar products. What problem do you have converting that into an explicit expression in terms of components?
I am afraid that the notation I'd use is not what you'd like
@ACuriousMind I think I am running on loops here. If I do what you say, and dare to ask, if what I wrote down is correct or not, I will be told, aren't you sure, why are you asking, you should be 100% certain.
13:57
Ok. I suggest this (probably for the third time): Forget the Wiki article
Take an action depending on $q_1,q_2$
derive completely analogous what you have done already for Lagrangians/actions which depend only on $q_1$ (or $q$ for that matter)
Then you can see what notation suits you the most and which notations have certain advantages or disadvantages
I did do that, and I got a result, which should be 100% correct
good
have you checked for e.g. two non-interacting particles?
as a sanity check?
@imbAF What I am trying to do is to get you to ask the question in a way that reveals what the actual problem in the understanding is. You know the definition of a scalar product in terms of components. You can apply that definition to the last expression in your screenshot. You get a result. Which step of that are you uncertain about, i.e. from where does the doubt arise because of which you are trying to ask this here?
you should get uncoupled Newton's equations
@TobiasFünke I don't know how to do that, the two non-interacting particles. Or maybe I do, and just don't know what you mean
14:02
take two free particles of masses $m_1$ and $m_2$. write down the Lagrangian
apply your result to see what EOM you get out
of course you can even test more general cases
The problem, which I will try to highlight is that:

I am trying to understand something. My starting point is A and i need to land to point Z. In between there are multiple instances (points) where question marks pop. So when I ask a question, that doesn't mean that suddenly all the rest of the instances where I have unclarity are suddenly clear. I have no issue in writing $\delta S$ when S has a vector valued function as an argument. Just introduce a sum notation on the RHS , index the components you derivate the function with and the infinitsimal changes you multiply them with and is don
yeah, I don't understand that response either
sometimes I feel "mean", because most of my replies are "I don't understand"--but I honestly do not get what they want to say
14:57
@TobiasFünke nah, it's not mean if you genuinely don't understand
I like to say "I don't understand" in real life until someone says a sentence in a way I like. That's mean :P
 
2 hours later…
16:46
would the socratic method of teaching be considered "mean"
17:36
> Psychological Safety is the Difference Between Socratic Teaching and Pimping
18:00
where a pimp is "mean" person who humiliates the learner
 
2 hours later…
19:47
It is frustrating how many textbooks on analytical mechanics don't differentiate between coordinates and trajectories
20:16
@DIRAC1930 care to elaborate?
As in is $q$, the trajectory $q(t)$ or is it just a coordinate $q$
20:34
@DIRAC1930 I guess you are somehow triggered by the Lagrangian action?
I mean, that abuse of notation is all over the place in physics :P
It is very annoying lol
21:28
yes. the action should be written $\int L o (\gamma (t), \gamma '(t)) dt$ maybe
and maybe one can write $L(a,b)$ instead of $L(x,v)$ to make sure people understand the Lagrangian itself need not have much to do with position and velocity (other than that $(a,b)$ should be isomorphic to tangent space)
or maybe one can write $L(x,y)$ to denote that $(x,y)$ is just a point on the tangent space where $y$ apriori doesnt denote the velocity of anything
but people write $L(x, \dot (x))$ which can cause confusion
Here is a really nice answer by Terrence Tao that talks about different types of viewing mechanics:
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/225814/does-quantum-mechanics-ever-really-quantize-classical-mechanics
Might be helpfull for someone
@User198 thanks
Tao is saying that the correspondence between classical and quantim mech can come from something like coherent states
which is one of the correspondences
in general, it is not clear how to recover the classical world we know from QM. decoherence is also supposed to be a process there
like, to make sure one theory recovers another theory, one has to reproduce all predictions of the latter theory from the former theory
21:46
@RyderRude I was reading about Ehrnfest theorem, the expecectation values of the operators correspond to the classical behaviour of the system.
But only for "nice" systems. That have nice quadratic at max potentials.
@SignorFeynman It's exactly the kind of confusion I describe in this answer of mine I keep linking whenever we talk about the mathematical nature of the Lagrangian/Hamiltonian/action :P
@User198 No, they don't, this is a frequent misinterpretation of Ehrenfest's theorem. $V(\langle x\rangle) \neq \langle V(x)\rangle$.
@ACuriousMind True
It is a coincidence that $V(\langle x\rangle) = \langle V(x)\rangle$ when $U$ is quadratic.
@User198 And this is a weird "restriction", since it essentially means only the free particle and the harmonic oscillator. Anything which is only true for those two very specific systems is in no sense true in general :P
@ACuriousMind Have you heard of Lindbladian ?en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lindbladian
@User198 of course, but I don't see how it's related to the conversation
21:51
@ACuriousMind So for most systems considered in QM the ehrnfest theorem is useless?
@ACuriousMind Its not. I just found about it today. Like Schrodinger equation for open systems.
@User198 It's not necessarily "useless", but it does not mean the "expectation values are classical" you want to interpret it as.
@ACuriousMind Ok thanks.

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