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12:01 AM
sure
 
Ok
And my 2nd question has to do with the solutions to the Dirac Eq. for a free at rest fermion particle
I know, that you are aware, we have 4 solutions, 2 with pos. energy and 2 with negative energy
So, my question is, what does this mean? That an electron can be in 1 of these 4 states?
 
@antimony yes, this requires a kind of long-term planning and social coordination (a single person can't really usefully do agriculture like this) that doesn't follow from the raw ability to understand mechanisms like water pressure or that seeds grow into plants
and it took us a while!
it's wild to realize that "modern humans" have been around for something like 200000 years but we really only started "civilization" like 10000 years ago
@imbAF these solutions are just a basis
 
that help us express a state?
 
they're like plane waves, right? It's just like for wavefunctions of non-rel particles without spin
 
meaning, the state can be expressed as a linear combination of the basis states,right?
aha
 
12:08 AM
you don't have "4 states" here, you have the 4-component spinor and uncountably many solutions in each component!
 
Ah, spinor
for which nothing was said in the lecture, I see
 
(one of each of the 4 solutions for each momentum $p$)
you don't need to understand what a spinor "is" in this context
 
I mean, here we have wave vector, in difference from the SE where it is a singe value
so a difference exists
I guess
 
@imbAF what do you mean?
if you solve the free SE in 3 dimensions, you get a wave vector, too
 
in the SE, $\Psi$ is not comprised of 4 components, like in the Dirac equation
 
12:11 AM
if you meant that you shouldn't have said wave vector
 
what should I have said instead?
 
I mean, your explanation is alright ("$\Psi$ is comprised of 4 components")
you could also say "vector-valued wavefunction"
 
Nice terminology
 
but "wave vector" is a term that means the vector describing a scalar-valued wave in 3 dimension, for a QM wavefunction it's essentially just the momentum vector
 
Yes, I misspoke
One electron, in an arbitrary state, can be expressed as linear combination of these spinors/vector valued wavefucntions?
since,as you said, these are basis
 
12:14 AM
sure
 
but one moment
Is it correct to say, that for the electron, in the linear combination, we use only the two states with pos energy?
Or it also utilizes the basis with neg. energy as well?
 
that's right
 
which?
it uses 2 or all 4?
 
and the positron uses the rest right?
if one can talk about a positron state, I don't know that
 
12:16 AM
(you want something with 2 components to describe an electron/positron because a spin-1/2 object should have 2 internal degrees of freedom)
 
I have no clue about antimatter
I see
 
sure, anti-matter is just particles like everything else (unless you're stuck in the past and believe it's holes in the Dirac sea :P)
 
For the moment I am stuck here xD
One last thing, the relativistic expression of energy, it does not include potential energy right?
 
Is it possible thought?
To include it in that expression?
 
12:21 AM
@ACuriousMind yes its fascinating, and scary. if we were not at the top of the food chain until very very recently (last 5%? of our existance)?
 
@antimony thank mass extinction for that, cuz we wouldn't have been otherwise
 
(not that i think top of the foodchain is as pride-worthy as claimed)
hah, true
 
 
4 hours later…
4:42 AM
We are bringing Terminator 2 upon ourselves willingly apparently...
 
 
1 hour later…
5:45 AM
ah, got it. thanks @ACuriousMind @Mr.Feynman
 
6:40 AM
0
A: Isotropic Subspace Implying the Existence of a Linear Equation Issue

SuzetI think this is basically about Gaussian elimination. Consider a subspace $V$ of $\mathbb C^{2\nu+1}$ with $\dim(V) \leq \nu$ (eg. any isotropic subspace). Then $V$ can be defined by a system $(\Sigma)$ of $m \geq \nu + 1$ independent linear equations: $$(\Sigma) : \forall 1 \leq i \leq m, \quad ...

@DIRAC1930 thoughts on the answer there in justifying where $\eta_0 = 0$ comes from?
 
7:08 AM
how do i find the dual correspondence of the partial time derivative of a ket?
intuitively i feel like partial deriv wrt time is not an operator so perhaps it's not affected when you take the dual of the ket?
 
7:21 AM
i've tried to reply to this a few times. but i just can't find a way to take it seriously
-2
Q: If cosmic microwave background fills all space, then does space exist?

tryingtobeastoicSay, there is a space of $5{m^3}$ in a room. (Is space synonymous with volume?) Now, we drop a ball of $2m^3$ in the room. How much space is left in the room? I would argue $3m^3$. When the solid ball is dropped in the room, it occupies $2m^3$ of space, and that $2m^3$ of space ceases to exist. N...

and end up giving up
could you say, if we assume CMB is composed of photons, and photons have no mass
yeah i just give up
 
7:54 AM
@antimony Although photons have no mass they still have energy. However, photons don't occupy space in the same way that matter does. In particular, matter is made of fermions, which obey the Pauli exclusion principle, which affects how much matter you can pack into a given space.
But photons are bosons, so they don't obey Pauli exclusion, and you can "pack" as many photons as you like into a given volume. In fact, the more the merrier.
Eventually, you'd create a Kugelblitz: a black hole made of light. However, we don't know of any way to create such an insanely high concentration of light. It's hard enough making black holes out of matter, which is a lot denser than your average light source. ;)
 
8:26 AM
fascinating @PM2Ring are there any requirements regarding phase coherence etc in such a black hole made of light?
i never knew of such a thing
 
8:43 AM
@antimony When the photon intensity is very high you get weird non-linear stuff. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two-photon_physics & en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Breit%E2%80%93Wheeler_process
 
 
1 hour later…
9:48 AM
@SillyGoose $(i\partial_t\lvert\Psi,t\rangle)^\dagger=-i\partial_t\langle\Psi,t\rvert$
 
10:39 AM
@bolbteppa This is weird communication: Where's the robot? If I understand what's happening correctly, this is just a clump of gallium they're controlling with magnetic fields applied from the outside
 
yeah, "The scientists utilized magnetic fields to control the shape and movements of the shape-shifting liquid metal robots"
I'm not sure why we're calling a clump of metal controlled by human-directed application of magnetic fields a robot
 
So maybe magnets + AI is how the T-1000 did it in Terminator 2...
 
Gallium is not magnetic. They put ferromagnetic neodymium-iron-boron microparticles into gallium or a similar alloy.
 
yeah, the innovation here is supposed to be the stuff they put into the gallium to make it susceptible to this control via magnetic fields
It's gallium because its melting point is low enough to melt it via induction easily
 
11:25 AM
@ACuriousMind hey how does ur ontology where physics does not inform us of the universe make sense of this?
0
Q: Can the continuum hypothesis be settled in physics?

More AnonymousCan the continuum hypothesis be settled in physics? In a lecture mathematician Woodin considers the possibility: Develops the mathematical physics of a mathematical understanding of the physical universe. If it starts to need large Cardinals remember large carnal axioms with finite-istic conseq...

 
purely mathematical statements do not concern the real world
you may or may not use the continuum hypothesis in the mathematical models you use for physics
 
But you are assuming (?) There exists this choice of using the continuum hypothesis for modelling the analysis done?
 
most modern logicians aren't platonists that believe things like CH "are true" or "are false"
 
I mean it's unprovable no?
 
there's many different set theories, in some CH is true, in others it is false, in the standard ZFC it is independent/undecidable
Woodin in particular seems to be a platonist rejecting this "relativist" or "multiverse" view of set theory
 
11:35 AM
Seems like a sensible likable guy
Unlike some dude called carnap :p
 
Carnap was a logical positivist
 
And an unlikeable soul :p
 
these guys did think there was a single truth and if only we formulated our theories carefully enough in formal language we could verify them
 
Hmmm 🧐 i see
 
Carnap was a "late" positivist in that the problem of induction had been such a hurdle for establishing a process of verification that he switched to the idea of "degrees of confirmation" instead of the ability to establish absolute truth, arguably a step in the direction of Popper's falsificationism (which is why Slereah brought him up when I mentioned Popper last time)
 
11:44 AM
I'll google this more later
But i mean
When i have phenomena A
And describe it by 2 mathematical theories
 
the singular of phenomena is phenomenon :P
 
Then why is there a mapping between both these branches of mathematics?
Like the only way that makes sense to me is the physical systems framework is valid as an approximation
 
What mapping do you mean? What exactly is a "mathematical theory" here? What does it mean to "describe a phenomenon" by one?
 
So an example would be how the matrix mechanics and rhe differential equation both described the same phenomena
Now there is a context in which both these pieces of seemingly different math
Described the same phenomenon
To someone who does not belive in the validity of the framework
I don't see how they explain this coincidence
 
this is another "QFT and renormalization" moment :P Just because you first learned about the relation between linear operator theory and differential equations via physics/QM doesn't mean it's physics that relates the two
 
11:51 AM
No I'm a particular context it does
I won't say physics causally relates the 2
My point is
Without the physical phenomena as a placeholder
Its.difficult to say why there must be a mapping in such scenarios
 
mathematicians teach functional analysis courses in which differential equations are studied via linear operator theory without ever mentioning physics
purely mathematically, there is a relation between linear operators and (linear) differential equation
so of course when you use a linear differential equation in your physical theory, you can equivalently think about it from the linear operator viewpoint
 
Yes but my point is when one doesn't know functional analysis
Can a civilization make the claim
There must be some kind of mapping between both these theories
?
 
what
 
Like let's there be some alien civilization
Knows differential equations
 
functional analysis is true regardless of whether you know it :P
 
11:54 AM
Knows linear algebra
Yes ... Look u can argue something in many ways
I'm asking is the methodology of argument vakid
 
what argument
 
So let's say i have phsyical measurement m and descriptor d1 and D2
I can map the measurement M1
To D1
As well as D2
Then I do another mesurment M2
 
of course if you notice that two apparently different mathematical frameworks seem to produce the same statements you might start looking into whether or not these frameworks are mathematically related - you don't need the physical observation that the statements they produce actually describe reality for this
quantum mechanics could have been entirely false and yet the observation that matrix mechanics is equivalent to wave mechanics as a physical theory - even one that is false -would still hold
this doesn't have anything to do with observation or reality
 
@ACuriousMind but my question is if there physical placeholder ...
*physical system as a placeholder
 
I have no idea what you mean by "placeholder"
 
11:58 AM
As placeholder for functional analysis
I mean I'm tempted to use the idea of dualities in string theory but I'm too unfamiliar with them :///
I mean i know you do not regard the physical systems framework
To have properties mappable to math
But i do
 
I don't know what sort of "mapping" you're talking about here!
 
Going on then
I have measurement M2
Again i can derive this result from D1 and d2
I can now say i map D1 to MN and D2 to MN
There must be a mapping between D1 and d2
This is what I'm talking about
 
what do you mean "map D1 to MN"
what does that mean
do you just mean you can derive the observations $M_i$ from the theory $D_i$?
 
why are we calling that "mapping $D_i$ to $M_i$"
it's just confusing
 
12:03 PM
Cause it is a mapping
In my head atleast
 
anyway, I already objected to this idea above:
7 mins ago, by ACuriousMind
of course if you notice that two apparently different mathematical frameworks seem to produce the same statements you might start looking into whether or not these frameworks are mathematically related - you don't need the physical observation that the statements they produce actually describe reality for this
 
that's where you whip out the categories :p
 
whether or not your $M_i$ are observations you actually make or just observations the $D_i$ predict but you haven't observed is completely irrelevant - your confidence that $D_1$ and $D_2$ are equivalent should not depend on whether or not they correctly describe reality
 
it is probably a bad idea to associate math with physics in that way anyway
 
@ACuriousMind okay consider an example like qft where you don't know how many Terms u have to sum to calculate something like the magentic dipole moment of an electron
In some sense u cheat
 
12:06 PM
There are always infinitely many mathematical structures that can describe a given physical theory, and if you pick the wrong one, you're gonna have a nasty surprise when you find out
 
And use the physical system to know how many Terms. Should be taken
Let's say D2 does not have this problem
 
@MoreAnonymous what do you mean "should"
 
Then i would argue there is mapping the asymptotic sum in qft and D2
 
so? you're just saying there might be a perturbative and a non-perturbative version of a theory
again, the equivalence between the perturbative and non-perturbative version of the theory does not depend on whether or not these theories actually describe reality
I feel you're not engaging with my objection at all
@Slereah If both sides of this conversation agreed that mathematics does not inherently relate to reality or observation at all there would be no conversation :P
 
pretty old debate, really
 
12:12 PM
indeed
I mean I didn't call the guy thinking the continuum hypothesis could be investigated via physics a platonist for nothing :P
 
I don't think you really could even if it was true
 
it's not a reference to the Greek restaurant "Platon"
 
@ACuriousMind No imagine if I have 2 pertubative theories describing the same phenomena
Then to say they both are talking about the same thing
I would have to know how many terms to take in the sum
 
I don't know what you're talking about
 
@ACuriousMind physically?
 
12:14 PM
we take as many sums of a perturbative series as are practical
 
Or otherwise?
@ACuriousMind practicalities are determined by ecperiemnt
no?
 
we abort at the order where either computation becomes to annoying for us to bother or where the higher order terms would only contribute below what our specific measurement setup can resolve
 
@ACuriousMind Yes so in the second case:"the higher order terms would only contribute below what our specific measurement setup can resolve"
 
(there's a third reason to abort in QFT related to the asymptotic nature of the series but that's not relevant in this context)
 
this is experimenttally determined
I mean I get confused between 2 and 3
 
12:16 PM
...yes? I mean, if you're doing this computation to compare it to the result of an experiment, at least
 
So I have 2 different series
which I stop at 2 different terms
How do you argue both theories are describing the same framework?
 
what do you mean "the same framework"?
 
*well like in the previous context of QM where both linear algebra and differential equations was describing functional analysis
 
I have two theories and when I ask them "give me predictions for the observed value of X up to 10 decimal places" they both spit out numbers (with uncertainties since they probably had to use experimental input to do that)
if the two predictions do not match within their uncertainties, then the two theories are obviously not equivalent. If they do then they might be
 
@ACuriousMind But the numbers they are spitting are tailored to map to the experiment. So I dont think its as straightforward as they spit out numbers
 
12:19 PM
Are they?
 
what do you mean "tailored"
 
It's pretty rare that QFTs are just curve fitting
The theories aren't just polynomials of observables :p
It's pretty hard to predict what a QFT will actually do from a Lagrangian
 
all the experiment did so far in this setup is influence the "up to 10 decimal places" bit - you were talking about the order in perturbation theory at which we abort, after all
 
last section
 
12:21 PM
Isn't that a cranky blog
I've seen it before
 
really?
I thought he was a good physicist
:P
lemme get a different source
 
all physicists are cranks
Oh wait I may be thinking of someone else
Pagesetting looked familiar
 
@MoreAnonymous I am aware of the asymptotic nature of the perturbation series, I explicitly mentioned it above. What does it have to do with our discussion?
 
I think Ive confused myself
:P
 
Also really using QFT as your basic example for epistemology of physics is probably not doing you any favours
 
12:25 PM
@Slereah I mean unfortunately I couldnt do less basic examples
 
@Slereah don't think that's a crank, the author is generally competent if a bit overconfident
 
What about a spring
Very good example
Having a phenomenon described by more than one formalism is something that happens in all areas of physics
 
@MoreAnonymous no, Slereah is right, you keep trying to make weird technical points about QFT when my arguments against your ideas are extremely general points about the relation between mathematics and reality.
 
You don't need to go with QFT
 
I mean lemme reorganize my thoughts
But brb
 
12:27 PM
that you "can't do" simpler examples suggests to me we're talking past each other
 
a fun little example you can pick is to just consider some discrete dataset of position and time, for instance
There are infinitely many curves going through all such points!
 
my favourite argument for why "continue this number sequence" 'logic' puzzles are stupid
 
yeah it's one of those things that annoy me
it's essentially a test of knowing what kind of sequences such tests use :p
 
12:50 PM
hello, i was wondering why, is magnetism is a relativistic effect, it is a big deal that there is no static magnetic charge? i get the idea that the equations for electric and magnetic field resemble each other in some ways, but is this the only reason?
 
it is a relativistic effect, yes
And it is not a big deal, no
 
why is the magnetic monopole such a big topic then :o
 
because people like symmetry and they dislike that Maxwell's equations are asymmetric :P
 
You can extend electromagnetism in a way that includes magnetic monopoles
 
if you believe in the gospel of the principle of least action it's actually not at all mysterious that there are no magnetic monopoles: One half of Maxwell's equations are equations of motion (and hence you can add an electric current just by adding a term to the EM action) but the other are off-shell identities just following from the definition of the EM field as the derivative of the 4-potential
in order to add magnetic monopoles you need to completely change this theory so that the "no magnetic monopoles" part of Maxwell's equations is no longer an off-shell identity
or you need to claim that the monopoles are somehow "holes in space" from the viewpoint of EM theory, which works if you really do think they're a kind of topological defect but not if you want them to be "normal particles" like electrically charged ones are
 
12:55 PM
that is interesting. yeah i was thinking no mag monopoles seems to be a necessary consequence of how the entities in the equations are defined, but i wasnt sure if i was missing smth
 
of course this isn't really a "reason" monopoles don't exist: After all, we developed EM theory according to the observation that there aren't any monopoles
but it is interesting that it is not easy to fit them into the more theroetical formulations of EM
 
Didn't dirac prove the quantization of charge or something if monopoles existed
 
but on the level of Maxwell's equations you could just write in a magnetic current and be done with it
 
?
GTG again
 
yes, the topological version of the monopole forces quantization of electric charge via the condition that the AB effect due to the Dirac string must be unobservable
 
12:59 PM
thanks for the info :D @ACuriousMind
 
1:14 PM
Do reductionists think mathematical objects (in Physics) are "real"?
 
Also there is a duality of some sort between magnetic and electric fields
You could alternatively say that only magnetic monopoles exist and there are no charges!
 
Is that duality related to hodge duality?
Because the hodge dual of the EM tensor swaps electric and magnetic field
What am I even saying :P
 
yes
one way to have electric and magnetic charges is to propose that there are two copies of EM and an equation of motion that equates the field strength tensor of one copy with the dual field strength of the other
 
I think I have seen something like that. There would be a magnetic lorentz force on magnetic charges with $E$ and $B$ swapped
 
You can mix them in fact
$E \to \cos \theta E + \sin \theta B$
by the way, this is an example as to why it's a bad idea to assign rigid ontologies in physics :p
 
 
2 hours later…
3:14 PM
 
 
1 hour later…
4:39 PM
@Slereah This is the second time I fall on the maximum of the gaussian in this meme
Frankel: "I cringe when I see expressions like $\sum_i v^iw^i$ in non-cartesian coordinates" lmao so true
 
they are just numbers
you are allowed to do so
 
how dare you
@Slereah By the way, what is $\mathcal{D}(k)^{B\mathbb{T}}$?
 
$\mathbb{T}$ is the one dimensional torus, ie the circle
$B$ is the classifying space
$D(k)$ I don't know
 
I thought you were 0.1% in the meme :P
 
I believe that geometry is about circles and triangles, but I will phrase it as Cartan geometry :p
 
4:44 PM
The best parts about differential geometry are those without geometry
I won't cringe anymore when I say "geometric"
 
I have seen people say that conformal geometry is basically about compasses and projective geometry is about rulers :p
very old school
 
I don't know anymore what geometry is about
300 IQ
 
Topology in some sense, I guess
I think all the fields of geometry involve topological spaces in some sense
Even like discrete geometry
 
I have a feeling topologists hate geometers :P
 
they hate sunlight and the smiles of children
 
4:49 PM
Yeah, topological manifolds suck
 
Oh topology of manifolds is fine
But pure topology is bonkers
pure topology is about giant lists of random topological conditions as far as I can tell
 
What about measure theorists? :P
 
No idea
Have been reading about geometric measure theory lately
I suspect it is important for what I want
Surprisingly hard to find how it relates to what I want though
 
I need a map of rivalries in math and physics
 
not that much papers on how geometric measure theory relates to structures on manifolds
 
 
2 hours later…
6:30 PM
@ACuriousMind magnetic charges?
 
 
1 hour later…
7:44 PM
@TejasDahake ...yes?
 
 
1 hour later…
9:00 PM
@ACuriousMind I heard this for the first time in my life...or maybe the second time?
Anyways but may I ask what does it mean?
 

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