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7:02 PM
The claim is that this wavepacket will move to the right with velocity $k_0$ (in units where hbar=m=1) and will approximately retain its original envelope
To justify this, I take the Fourier transform of the initial wavepacket to get $\tilde{\psi}(k) = \tilde{\phi}(k-k_0)$. The subsequent time evolution is $\tilde{\psi}(k,t)=e^{-i k^2 t/2}\tilde{\phi}(k-k_0)$
 
@Semiclassical this isn't a claim about Fourier transforms
it's (presumably) a claim about the Schrödinger equation
 
well, I think the claim about FT is with regard to $\tilde{\phi}(k-k_0)$
namely, that it should also have support in the nbhd of $k=k_0$
 
@Semiclassical as in, multiplying by $e^{ik_0x}$ is a shift in momentum space?
yes
@Semiclassical if $\phi(x)$ is flat then yes
 
mostly I'm trying to see where the approximations come in
 
@Semiclassical well, in saying "flat"
 
7:06 PM
namely, why this doesn't work if $\sigma=0$ and $k_0$ is finite
hmm, maybe I see it
 
@Semiclassical if $\sigma=0$ then it works in that it shifts the center of the momentum distribution, but its tail becomes extremely heavy
 
yeah
The logic I had in mind was that 'smoothing' at the edge of the flat $\phi(x)$ is equivalent to a Gaussian convolution
which in turn would mean that the Fourier transform would amount to multiplying the $\sigma=0$ FT by a Gaussian, thereby smoothing it out
 
5
A: What is the spreading for rectangular wave packets?

Emilio PisantyIn a word (well, two): not pretty. A rectangular wavepacket has a sharp discontinuity, which means that its momentum-space representation (i.e. its Fourier transform) has a significant support at very large momentum, and as soon as you give the time-dependent Schrödinger equation any time to act,...

^ the $\sigma=0$ case
 
which in turn justifies $\tilde{\phi}(k-k_0)$ having most of its support near $k=k_0$
 
... is ugly
 
7:09 PM
ew
 
well, what'd you expect
 
starting off a Schrödinger equation with a discontinuous function
 
just because it's expected doesn't mean it's not ugly
2
 
of course it's "ew"
@Semiclassical true that
@Semiclassical if it is a gaussian convolution then obviously yes
 
7:11 PM
well, I think one can approximate it as such
and once one does that approximation, then that logic is fine
how good of an approximation that is...hmm
 
@Semiclassical ... depends on the actual shape of the smoothing
 
but the bottom line is, yes, don't worry about it
 
Nice.
 
for "smooth enough" shifts from constant to zero, the support of your shifted wavepacket is arbitrarily tightly localized around $k_0$
 
7:14 PM
the relevant picture from the paper is this one (though there's one unrealistic aspect of it which annoys me):
 
where obviously the tightness is controlled by the requirement that $L\gg \sigma \gg 1/k_0$ and that the function be smooth
 
the second one is the relevant one. I should probably only have included it, come to think of it
the unrealistic bit is that they have $L\gg \lambda_0 >\sigma$ in the above picture when they really need the last inequality to be reversed (and state as much in the paper itself)
 
@Semiclassical the higher amplitude on the right?
@Semiclassical ah
yeah, well
 
i get why it's like that
it'd be hard to draw it with the inequality reversed
but at a glance it gives the wrong impression
 
@Semiclassical is it really important?
 
7:18 PM
if I'm trying to simulate it in MMA, yeah
 
I guess it is, the time behaviour would be dominated by the boxcar's diffraction more than the movement to the right
 
Right
if that inequality is reversed, it'll lose its shape
 
well, it'll always lose its shape
 
sure
it's always just a matter of how quickly
 
the question is whether it'll do so before moving one wavelength to the right, or something like that
 
7:19 PM
right.
 
I think that that's the right benchmark
 
i guess the issue is that, if you look at it too quickly, you might assume that you could take $\sigma\to 0$ without issue
 
anyways
the project I'm making for myself is ultimately to simulate the scenario they give there
but I figured starting from the free evolution was a good first step
 
@Semiclassical indeed
 
7:23 PM
actually, my endpoint is a bit more ambitious than that. where I want to get to eventually is a spin-1/2 particle scenario. but getting this version to work is a necessary warm-up
 
7:38 PM
@EmilioPisanty one thing that's bugging me there is that i know i've seen formulae pertaining to $\text{erf}(z)$ along lines like $\arg z =\pi/4$
but I can never track those down when I need them
 
@Semiclassical ugh
dubious
 
well, that's what sqrt(i) is
 
if they're not in the DLMF then I wouldn't know where to look for them
 
yeah, no, exact expressions are definitely out
 
7:41 PM
not sure what I'm thinking of then
the issue, I think, is that erf has stokes lines along arg(z)=pi/4 and arg(z)=3pi/4
(maybe anti-stokes? I never remember the terminology right)
oh frabjous day, they actually have the relevant equation available: books.google.com/…
 
7:57 PM
@Semiclassical Is this some WKB stuff?
 
not explicitly, but it's in the same ballpark
 
Ok, just wondering.
 
it's all asymptotic stuff
 
Dangit, @ACuriousMind where's that answer where you explained why density matrices have to work they way they do?
I thought I favorited it, but I can't find it in my favorites list.
 
@DanielSank here
 
8:02 PM
@EmilioPisanty I think what i have in mind is the relation of the error function to the fresnel integrals
$${\displaystyle {\begin{aligned}C(z)+iS(z)&={\sqrt {\frac {\pi }{2}}}{\frac {1+i}{2}}\operatorname {erf} \left({\frac {1-i}{\sqrt {2}}}z\right),\\ S(z)+iC(z)&={\sqrt {\frac {\pi }{2}}}{\frac {1+i}{2}}\operatorname {erf} \left({\frac {1+i}{\sqrt {2}}}z\right).\end{aligned}}}$$
 
@ACuriousMind I must not understand this website.
Thank you.
 
@DanielSank I just search for answers of mine with "partial trace" in them whenever you ask me for that answer - since I haven't written about partial traces all that much, it's easy to find in the results ;)
 
I see.
 
ignore the amp; in there
 
8:17 PM
@EmilioPisanty What i find weird in there is how having small but finite $t$ is apparently analogous to Gibbs phenomenon
I'm sure it can be explained in a sensible way, but it just weirds me out
 
@Semiclassical it's a good question
Probably for the maths site
You should ask it
@DanielSank if you do favorite it, you know you can search with infavorites:mine, right?
Or some very similar syntax
 
8:32 PM
@EmilioPisanty I may, yeah. It should come down to a statement about the large-z asymptotics
 
@Semiclassical hmmmmmm
Probably not, I think
 
Well, it sorta has to. The arguments of your error functions are of the form z~x/sqrt(t)
 
But you will probably lose out on the high-k components first and thus mimic an incomplete convergence
On a separate track though
 
So small-t means large z
@EmilioPisanty hmm, nice
Of course, this is all irrelevant to my original problem since the whole point of smoothing out the rectangular function is to ensure none of the crazy stuff shows up
 

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