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00:42
@ChrisWhite Yeah. I note around the web that supernovaa that we probably missed seeing in 1998, did see this fall and can expect to see again in the new year.
01:00
It's winter break why isn't chat brimming with life yet...porqueee
@dmckee Is that the one I linked to? Or another one? In which case, do link!
@EmilioPisanty Yeah. Same one. That's what I get for reviewing chat too fast.
Looking for the link I had that suggests a missed viewing.
oooh, so there's a new sighting expected for the new year?
Excellent!
S&T didn't mention it.
Let's see. I think this is the link I saw: news.sciencemag.org/space/2015/12/…
and I also found iflscience.com/space/…
I have to say that the variety of depth, detail and (in)correctness in the reporting is very interesting.
Yeah, I'll look at those.
I'm not generally a huge fan of iflscience, I have to say
makes me go all
@dmckee It looks like the forecast is actually for the one we just saw. The observation paper arxiv.org/abs/1512.04654 only mentions the prediction of a single re-image.
 
3 hours later…
04:43
@ACuriousMind Thank you master of words, you are very good at consoling! Nevertheless, the point I was trying to make is true. :: Sigh ::
 
3 hours later…
user54412
07:29
480
Q: The MIT License – Clarity on Using Code on Stack Overflow and Stack Exchange

samthebrand Update (Dec. 22): Thanks, everyone, for your feedback to this proposal. We're going to digest this one over the holidays and should have a follow-up announcement answering your questions and addressing your concerns after the new year. We won't be making any hurried decisions on this topic, an...

user54412
Why is the internet so militantly litigious when it comes to copyright?
10:22
Wtf, why does some stupid question about Killing vectors that every German high school student can answer get 22 upvotes but my light wave question which seems pretty tricky and intricate get only 11 votes?
Huy
Huy
cuz this site is populated by German high schoolers
Perhaps.
@Huy Ah, the punctured plane has noncompact and bounded, closed subsets.
@Huy Why can one cover any curve by a finite number of coordinate neighborhoods?
Maybe because the parameter domain is compact and the curve is a continuous mapping into the manifold?
Huy
Huy
define curve
Continuous mapping from I to M. I is some closed interval of reals.
Huy
Huy
so the curve is compact
what you probably meant by parameter domain
10:35
Yes. So what I just said.
Huy
Huy
ok yea
10:57
I don't remember how to do calculus any more.
If I have a function $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and then another function $g:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, how do I do a substitution $y=f(x)$ in $\int g(f(x)) dx$?
11:16
In particular, what happens to $dx$?
12:08
@DanielSank what is $x$ here
$x\in\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{R}^2$?
@0celo7 $x \in \mathbb{R}^2$.
@DanielSank oh jeez man
you need the thing
yeah, that should work
I found something called the coarea formula which seems related.
@0celo7 What thing?
Jacobian?
wait that's for vector-valued subs
or is it??
@0celo7 What's the Jacobian of a function which goes from a domain of one dimension to an image of another dimension?
I don't understand how to do that.
If the dimensions were the same then I know what to do (determinant of derivative matrix).
12:11
@DanielSank Yes, hence my following comment
This is rather annoying. I feel like every single user in this chat should know how to do this, yet I can't figure it out.
Nah, I'm not smart enough to do that either
hmm
are you sure this even makes sense
what does $y=f(x)$ do for you?
What I actually want to do is this:
Suppose I have a probability distribution $P(x,y) = \delta(x^2 + y^2 - r^2)$
oh we've been over this
Yes.
It comes down to understanding some geometry.
If I say $f(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 - r^2$, then $f(x,y)=0$ defines the circle.
Then I can rewrite the delta as $\delta(f(x,y))$ and the question is how do we handle objects like this?
So, I thought first I'd try to understand the case of $g(f(x))$ where $g:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.
12:17
line integral along the circle?
There has got to be a way to think about this.
@DanielSank understandable
@ChrisWhite what do you mean? I don't think I've heard anyone describe the internet as lititigious before.
@DanielSank well $g\circ f:\mathbb{R}^2\to\mathbb{R}$
@0celo7 Yes.
12:19
so there really is no sub to make, just do $y:=g\circ f$ and then you have $\int y\mathrm{d}x$
Do not understand.
@DanielSank well I'm not sure what sub you're trying to make and why
well maybe I understand the why...
@0celo7 I'm really just trying to express $\delta(f(x,y))$ in terms of something that can be integrated one variable at a time.
@DanielSank no the general thing
not with the delta
@0celo7 ok
Well, I explained the setup.
Again, I have $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $g:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.
12:23
@DanielSank No...I don't think you did
What is $y$
Say $f:U \rightarrow V$
$U,V$?
open sets?
$U \subset \mathbb{R}^2$.
$V \subset \mathbb{R}$.
Yeah, they're open. Whatever.
It doesn't matter.
(well, it might matter if they're compact)
How do I write $\int_U g \circ f$ as an integral over $V$?
12:25
why would you be able to do that
the whole reason why the delta function works like it does it because of $\delta(\vec x)=\prod_i \delta(x^i)$ and Fubini's theorem
Yah.
I think we should be able to do this:
$\delta(f(x)) = \int_{p|f(p)=0} \text{Something which has factorized delta functions}$.
@DanielSank agreed.
But I've been at this for days and have not succeeded.
ok, run through the proof in 1-dim
There was some discussion in the math chat but frankly I don't understand it because it involves some $d\sigma(x)$ thing which has meaning in measure theory but not in my head.
12:29
for $\delta(f(x))$ where $f:R\to R$
@0celo7 Ok that's easy.
@DanielSank please remind me, it's been a year since I've done any QM
Then you say $\delta(f(x)) = \sum_{p|f(p)=0} \delta(f(p) + f'(p) + \cdots)$
i.e. Taylor expand about the zeros of $f$.
Then by construction since $f(p)=0$ and since $\delta(a (X-x_0)) = \delta(x-x_0)/|a|$, we get
$\sum_{p|f(p)=0} \delta(x-p)/|f'(p)|$.
Note that I forgot the $(x-p)$ factor in the linear term of the Taylor expansion.
@DanielSank what's the proof of that? I don't see how the $\lvert.\rvert$ comes about
@DanielSank yeah
@0celo7 You can just prove it via change of variables. It's easy.
12:31
(brb)
Whether $a$ is positive or negative you always get positive in the denominator.
@DanielSank yes that's what I did but I didn't get the abs val
@0celo7 Uh, well, it's there.
@DanielSank the delta is an even function, done
@0celo7 Sure.
Anyway, we try to extend this proof to higher dimensions:
$\delta(f(x)) = \int_{p|f(p)=0} \delta(\sum_i (\partial_i f)(p) (x_i - p_i))$.
But now I'm stuck.
I can't factorize the $\delta$.
Huy
Huy
12:38
you still refuse to use measure theory?
@Huy I don't know measure theory.
what happens to the higher order terms
in the Taylor expansion
(in one dim)
Someone in the math chat probably wrote the answer down for me but I don't know what the hell $d\sigma(x)$ means in real life.
@0celo7 They're zero near the zeros of $f$.
@DanielSank hmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
seems like some trickery to me
@0celo7 It might be.
But I doubt it.
12:42
Open the door
Get on the floor
Everybody walk the dinosaur
there's some trickery here
I would appreciate it if someone third could explain to OP how SE normally works or mediate here.
@DanielSank currently doing rigorous riem geo not half-assed delta function nonsense :P
can't help you
@0celo7 It's not half assed, but suit yourself, of course.
@Qmechanic Not sure how to help with that one.
Look at the third equation here.
What on Earth is the absolute value of the Jacobian of a function $f:\mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$?
Huy
Huy
det
12:48
@Huy How do you det a non-square matrix?
Huy
Huy
usually not at all
@Huy Then I reiterate my question:
What does $|J_k f|$ mean if $f:\mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$?
Huy
Huy
$J^t J$
@Huy Aha!
Is it $det(J^t J)$?
Huy
Huy
just remember to take the square root afterwards
to get back proper units
12:52
So it's $\sqrt{ \text{det} J^t J}$?
Huy
Huy
yes
@Qmechanic What's this new funny star?
Huy
Huy
probably
@Huy Somehow I never learned this.
Huy
Huy
at least that's how we've been doing this in analysis/diffgeo
12:52
Is there a geometric way to understand what this means?
@DanielSank : Pinned star.
@Qmechanic Is this some mod wizardry?
@DanielSank : Yeah.
Huy
Huy
@DanielSank it means what it usually means for square matrices. do you know singular values?
@Huy I know that the determinant is essentially the volume of the parallelopiped you get if you act the matrix on the unit vectors.
Singular values are square roots of the eigenvalues or something like that.
I never learned why they're important.
Huy
Huy
13:03
yes, and if $J$ isn't square you can also get that volume by looking at $J^T J$ instead and taking the square root, which is obvious if you compute eigenvalues/singular values.
eigenvalues are only well-defined for square matrices, singular values are somewhat a generalization because they exist for any matrix.
@Huy Volume of the lower dimensional image?
Huy
Huy
if you multiply them, yes
What I mean is, suppose I have an $m \times n$ matrix.
Huy
Huy
much as eigenvalues show you how the map behaves on certain eigenspaces, the singularvalues give you such an information about volume
Suppose I have the $n$ unit vectors in $\mathbb{R}^n$.
If I act my matrix on those unit vectors, is the $m$ dimensional volume of the result equal to $\sqrt{\text{det}(J^t J)}$?
Huy
Huy
13:05
try it out
@Huy trying...
I think I see what's going on.
Suppose my matrix is $\left[2 \quad 1 \right]$.
This matrix goes from $\mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.
Now suppose I act this on the matrix $\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{array}$.
The result is $\left[ \begin{array}{cc} 2 & 1 \end{array} \right]$.
yes, that's the beauty of $\mathrm{Id}$
Wait a minute...
Huy
Huy
I don't know if choosing a map $R^2 \to R$ is a good example
If I do $\text{det}(J^t J)$ in this case I get 0.
I suspect that behind the formula you've given me is the higher dimensional version of the Pythagorean theorem.
But I don't see it yet.
13:14
@DanielSank Pythagorean theorem?
how do you come to that conclusion/claim
Huy
Huy
you mean Parseval?
@0celo7 Yeah. If you embed a $k$-dimensional parallelogram into an $n>k$ dimensional space, it turns out that the volume of the $k$-parallelogram is the square root of the sum of the squares of the $k$-volumes of the projections into the $k$-planes in the $n$-space!
@Huy Perhaps, see previous comment.
Oh man I'm dumb.
No, I'm not.
Grrr.
@Huy the determinant in my example is zero. What gives?
Huy
Huy
@DanielSank: because it gives you the 2 dimensional volume of your image
I thought the whole point of this was to get something useful for the case when the map doesn't preserve the dimension.
Maybe I see your point now.
Huy
Huy
it does if your map goes up in dimensions because then you don't lose information
13:23
Ah.
Huy
Huy
you can't expect to project to a line and then by multiplying by the transpose getting back your original information
Right.
It works in the upwards case.
Let me try that.
Huy
Huy
it should, yes
Yeah, now I really think this is a tricky way to use Pythagoras.
I may have actually learned this ten years ago...
Huy
Huy
I don't know, in normal courses you don't usually do substitution where you go from one dimension to a different one
13:27
@Huy It wasn't a normal course ;)
It was me reading Munkres's Analysis on Manifolds, an excellent book.
Huy
Huy
I'd be surprised if the coarea formula wasn't in there
you need it to integrate on manifolds
and if it was there, it probably also explained what to do if dimensions don't match
@Huy It wasn't. I read that book cover to cover.
I really don't think I saw anything like the coarea formula.
Huy
Huy
ok, maybe it was too obvious for Munkres
:P
The changing dimensions thing was only discussed in the context of transforming parallelograms.
It didn't come up later when actually doing calculus.
@Huy Nah, I think it just wasn't the point. The big finale of the book is Stokes's theorem.
Huy
Huy
does he do any PDEs, Sobolev spaces/Schauder estimates on manifolds?
I haven't read it and I'm looking for good books on those topics
13:30
@Huy Nope.
Huy
Huy
ok
The most advanced topic is discussing how a closed form can only not be exact if there are holes in space.
"Homotopy" or some such word.
Huy
Huy
cool
Yeah it's pretty neat that for each hole in space you get one such form, and Nature just happens to use that form for things like the electric field of a point charge and the magnetic field around an infinite line of current.
He also uses partitions of unity to prove stuff, which I really like.
Huy
Huy
that's a very common tool for proofs in differential geometry
I didn't understand much of it in my freshmen analysis course though
13:34
Anyway, for the map $J = \left[ \begin{array}{c}2\\1\end{array}\right]$, I find that the square root of the det of $J^tJ$ is $\sqrt{5}$, which is also the length of the unit vector in $\mathbb{R}$ after transformation.
In this simple case it's obvious that we're using Pythagoras.
@Huy Partition of unity is just a way to let you deal with limits. You divide up your domain by regularizing with the component functions. Each one has compact support so things are nice, etc.
Huy
Huy
yeah, I understand it better now
however in my analysis course my Prof just defined "this is a partition of unity" and then proceeded to use it for a proof
and nobody had an idea what that was about
Thanks, @Huy for explaining this $\sqrt{\text{det}(J^t J)}$ thing.
Huy
Huy
np
I think that was a critical step for me toward understanding my original problem with the $\delta$ functions.
I think I might be able to decipher the coarea formula now.
@Huy never seen it before
Huy
Huy
13:39
@0celo7: you also don't prove a lot of things :P
what
@Huy Yeah, I agree with @0celo7. I've integrated on manifolds and never heard of coarea.
It's not in Lee, Jost, do Carmo, ect.
Huy
Huy
it's just the change of variable and you want it to be true, no?
@Huy Yeah, but when are you changing dimension in manifolds?
13:40
@Huy What don't I prove?
Huy
Huy
it's surely in Lee or do Carmo, that's the two books I've read
@Huy Nope.
Never seen it in a GR book.
Never seen it in a math book.
Not in Frankel...
Huy
Huy
you could have some $C^1$ map between Riemannian manifolds of different dimensions
and then apply the coarea formula
@Huy So if it's so important why is it in no books?
Huy
Huy
I never said it was important?
I just said it's a very basic property of integration so it's something I find worth checking if you wanna integrate over manifolds
13:44
@Huy You said I don't prove things
Implying you need it to prove things which I haven't proved
Not in other Lee...
@DanielSank (Co)homology ;)
Homotopy is related, but different.
@DanielSank: What is your definition of $\delta(f(x))$, btw?
There's an issue here that one essentially has to define its meaning through one of the formulas you want to "show" for it.
Because, generally, applying a $\delta$-distribution to a function like that just...isn't defined, since the $\delta$ is not a proper function that has an actual argument.
@ACuriousMind If $g:M\to N$ is a local diffeomorphism and a covering map, why does $N$ is simply connected imply $g$ is a global diffeomorphism?
One could use one of the various nascent $\delta$-function series and compose those with $f$, but I don't see immediately that it is guaranteed that their convergence is then guaranteed, let alone that it is independent of the chosen nascent $\delta$.
Huy
Huy
universal cover is unique?
@0celo7 Simply connected spaces don't have non-trivial covers.
13:55
@Huy That's the thought I had, but what are the details?
@ACuriousMind Could you please explain what you mean by that?
Huy
Huy
the same as I said
you can probably find the proof in any topology book
@0celo7 There is a bijection between possible covers and subgroups of the fundamental group - since the fundamental group of simply connected spaces is trivial, there are no subgroups, and hence no covers other than the cover of the space by itself.
I know that the cover is unique.
@ACuriousMind Ok, but how does this prove that $g$ is a diff?
@0celo7 Uh, you presupposed that it is a local diffeomorphism. To make it a global one you need only show it is a bijection.
(Since being continuous/smooth is a local property - it cannot hold locally but fail globally)
@ACuriousMind Yes.
@ACuriousMind Wait, $M$ is not simply connected...
Isn't the cover always simply connected?
Huy
Huy
14:05
if $M$ covers $N$ and $N$ is simply connected then $M$ is obviously also simply connected
...$M$ covers $N$?
I thought $N$ covers $M$
Huy
Huy
you said $g: M \to N$ was a covering map???
@Huy Yeah
Huy
Huy
that means $M$ covers $N$ ........
14:06
@Huy huh
@0celo7 You might observe that there only being trivial covers of $N$ directly implies that $M$ is simply connected too...
Well now my question is pretty stupid :P
@ACuriousMind :/
I see no reason a priori why $M$ should be simply connected...
then learn some algebraic topology :)
Huy
Huy
^
@ACuriousMind Is simply-connectedness preserved by an immersion?
@MikeMiller I have $M$ compact, connected and orientable and all of a sudden it's also simply connected?
14:11
yup! N's Christmas present to you
Well how can that happen...
Is simple connectedness a property of the immersion in higher-dimensional Euclidean space?
Dammit, I always confuse immersions and embeddings :D
@ACuriousMind I think I am too.
You said you have a covering map from M to N, where N is simply connected, @0celo7. Has that changed?
@MikeMiller I think not.
14:14
Ok; think about that.
@MikeMiller Thinking...
Oh!
I forgot the diffeomorphism part. My counterexample does not have $g$ has a diff locally.
@0celo7 Do you know what the last part of this equation means? $L_{pq} = \mathbf{e}_p \cdot \mathbf{L} \cdot \mathbf{e}_q = \mathbf{L} : (\mathbf{e}_p \otimes \mathbf{e}_q)$.
@0537 I can imagine what it means.
what does the colon mean.
Covering maps are local diffeomorphisms by definition when you're talking about smooth manifolds.
So that's mildly worrying.
14:18
@MikeMiller It wasn't a covering map for the space I was looking at.
Stupid mistake -- alles klar now.
@0537 Well
or like how does the tensor product appear?
Suppose we have two tensors $t_{ab}$ and $h^{ab}$, then $t:h:=t_{ab}h^{ab}$
@ACuriousMind: Thanks for the comment to OP.
it's notation for a complete contraction
@0celo7 o. well.
14:23
@0537 because $L_{ab}e_p^ae_q^b$ is the contraction of $L$ with $e_p\otimes e_q$
idk why math people use index free notation
I used to like it but there's really no reason
Why would one not just write $\langle t,h\rangle$ or $(t,h)$?
@ACuriousMind he's reading engineering things
@0celo7 thanks.
That "complete contraction" is just the inner product on the space of $k$-tensors, right?
@0celo7 And they just love colons so much they had to invent this notation, or what?
one last thing... would it make sense if you contracted it without the $\otimes$ symbol?
14:25
@ACuriousMind :P
@0537 No because $e_pe_q$ has no meaning.
$\mathbf{L}$ with $\mathbf{e_p e_q}$
o
is $\mathbf{e}_p \otimes \mathbf{e}_q$ a 1d matrix?
it's not a matrix
typically one takes matrices as $(1,1)$ tensors
(at least in GR)
what is it then?
it's a rank 2 covariant tensor
or order 2
it's a (0,2) tensor
o i see now.
14:28
or (2,0)? fml I can't remember anything
also it's contravariant
because to contract it with $L_{ab}$ it has to be a rank 2 tensor, that's why there is a tensor product right?
just kill me :(
@0537 yes
vector otimes vector is (2,0), not (0,2) tensor
details are unimportant =/
@Secret I forgot which number is contravariant and which one covariant
@ACuriousMind Is it the "order" or "rank" or "type" of a tensor?
14:30
i'm starting to flow with this fluid stuff.
I always remember (0,n) tensors as covariant, like the metric tensor $g_{\alpha\beta}$
@Secret hmm
what happens if I misremember that as (n,0)
like I just did :P
@0celo7 when will you read engineering things?
@0537 the rank of the tensor is the max number of indices, the type is the (m,n) it belongs to. As for order, I often seen it used interchageably with rank, but I am not sure whether strictly speaking it has a difference

@0celo7 I am not sure, you might end up getting the rules for the type of tensor for gradients and divergence wrong because of how they depend on +-1 of the cotravarient or covarient number in the (m,n) notation

But in practice, I guess it should not matter much since when you actually do the computation, the indices for the tensor notation should be in the correct places
@0537 already am
14:37
D:
book?
HE is basically time travel engineering
lol...
@Secret uh do Carmo has no indices
In that case I guess that question is beyond me, given that Slereah and Acuriousmind have pointed out many times the mistakes I have made when manipulating tensors index free ,suggesting that I don't understood index free formulation of tensors well enough
it's not an important question
and it's not a conceptual issue
14:46
@Slereah the multiple time dimension paper you referred me earlier seems to deal with n particles with a time variable for each particle. After discussing with Acuriousmind on that topic we only get the operational part of the answer to the question on "why single time instead of n time". He also pointed out that the results of that paper cannot be naively extended to n time single particle

Recently I am interested in investigating n time one particle extensions to quantum mechanics, so I can better understood the physics of n time dimensions, I am currently looking for digestible papers t
@0celo7 Whatever you like
On a side note, since everyone relevant is now here, I should start asking THAT question:
::hides::
The question concerns about the bra ket notation of the expectation value of an arbitrary operator $O$
@ACuriousMind Seriously
why are you so annoyed/sarcastic all the time
14:54
@0celo7 Everyone of these is used, and I don't have a particular preference - my answer to that question is literally "Whatever you like"!
@ACuriousMind :/
I also tend to say $(k,l)$-tensors and evade choosing one of these altogether, come to think of it...
15:24
@ACuriousMind
We know from quantum mechanics that $$\langle \psi_1\lvert\hat{O}\rvert\psi_2\rangle$$ is short for $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi_1^*(a)\hat{O}\psi_2(a) da$$ for some continuous(?) basis(?) 'a'

Suppose that $\psi_q$ can be expanded as a linear combination of orthonormal functions $\phi_i$ (i.e. $\phi_i$ forms an orthonormal basis), i.e.

$$\langle\psi_q\rvert=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}c_{qi}\langle\phi_i\rvert$$

for some coefficients $c_{qi}\in \mathbb{C}$

Then

$$\langle \psi_1\lvert\hat{O}\rvert\psi_2\rangle=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}c_{1i}^*\langle\phi_i\lvert\hat{O}\sum_{k=1}^{\inft
(?) means I am not sure of the correct terminology
@Secret I don't understand what "physical rationale" you think expanding two different vectors in the same basis needs - that's what a basis is meant to do, it is part of its definition that a basis spans all vectors inside the space.
Just for a sanity check. I know that $\psi$, the wavefunction, has no physical meaning (under the born (probability) interpretation of quantum mechanics). But does $@$ have a physical meaning in general?
1. Why on earth would you choose $@$ of all symbols for a state? 2. It's what results from applying $O$ to $\psi_2$. :P
Because my thought process that leads to the question is that if $@$ and $\psi$ has different physical meaning (i.e. one has none and another has some kind of physical meaning e.g. momentum), then I cannot wrap my head on how to understand how you can get something physically different by simply rearranging the basis vectors in the underlying vector space (e.g. by choosing different components for each basis vector and then take the inner product of the resulting vector formed by the near combination of the basis vectors)
typo: "near" should be "linear", stupid autocorrect
15:43
I have genuinely no idea what you're trying to ask there, sorry. Your $@$ and $\psi_2$ are both just "wavefunctions"/quantum states/whatever. If you believe that one has "no physical meaning" then the other doesn't have one, either.
Why are physicists interested in manifolds with exceptional holonomy (eg $G_2, \text{Spin}(7)$)? Seems like the existence of parallel spinors are interesting, for some reason? (Occasionally in the math literature you see "And the physicists care about this, for some reason.")
@MikeMiller I think you'll have to ask a string theorist that, I vaguely recall that exceptional holonomies are either nice or even necessary for certain of their compactifications to give interesting physics.
Do any of those come here?
Not really, no
successfully chased them all away, then? :) anyway, thanks
15:52
There are some on the main site, though, so you might get an answer if you ask this as an actual question.
Ok let me phrase it in another way:

Consider how we write out an expectation value under the continuous basis a.

Under the Born probability interpretation

$\psi(a)$ no physical meaning

$\hat{O}$ give a distribution of the observable o after bracketing (i.e. $\langle\lvert\rvert\rangle$)

$\hat{O}\psi(a)$ no physical meaning

$\psi^*(a)$ no physical meaning

$\psi^*(a)\hat{O}$ no physical meaning

$\psi^*(a)\hat{O}\psi(a)$ no physical meaning

$\psi^*(a)\psi(a)$ probability density

(1)

Then suddenly...
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