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user131753
4:00 PM
Hello @LeakyNun.
 
user131753
I am having a problem in Category Theory regarding the definition of Dual Category. Would you mind to discuss that with me@LeakyNun?
 
depends on what the problem is
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Ok. Fair enough.
 
user131753
The basic problem in the definition of Dual Category of a given category $\mathbf{A}$ is that: Why do we denote the morphisms in the dual of $\mathbf{A}$ (henceforth $\mathbf{A}^{\text{op}}$ by the same "letters")?
 
because they're the same
it's just the composition that has changed
@user170039 recall that a category consists of a set of objects Ob(A), a set of morphisms Mor(X,Y) between each two objects X and Y, and a composition function Mor(Y,Z) x Mor(X,Y) -> Mor(X,Z)
 
user131753
4:07 PM
@LeakyNun In what sense exactly?
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Not really. Direction of the morphisms has also changed.
 
Let's denote it as $\langle Ob(A), Mor_A(X,Y), Comp_A(X,Y,Z) \rangle$
Then, $Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y) := Mor_A(Y,X)$
you don't really need a new letter
for the elements inside
if $f \in Mor_A(Y,X)$, then $f \in Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y)$
it's the same $f$
this is working within ZFC
 
user131753
@LeakyNun In what sense of "sameness" exactly?
 
they are equal as objects in ZFC
 
user131753
@LeakyNun You mean equal by Axiom of Extension, right?
 
4:12 PM
extension is a way of proving equality
"extensionally equal" doesn't make any sense
but in the informal meaning
no, they are definitionally equal
$Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y)$ by definition contains every object in $Mor_A(Y,X)$
so if $f \in Mor_A(Y,X)$, then $f \in Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y)$
@user170039 doesn't make any sense, unless you're throwing out the axiom of extension
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Can you clarify?
 
just ignore that
1 min ago, by Leaky Nun
$Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y)$ by definition contains every object in $Mor_A(Y,X)$
52 secs ago, by Leaky Nun
so if $f \in Mor_A(Y,X)$, then $f \in Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y)$
 
user131753
@LeakyNun What is "by definition" here?
 
by definition of $Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y)$
7 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
Then, $Mor_{A^{op}}(X,Y) := Mor_A(Y,X)$
 
user131753
@LeakyNun I see.
 
user131753
4:20 PM
In fact, I was kind of wondering whether a different definition is possible and the following is a sketch of ideas that I could come up with. I will be glad to have your feedback regarding it @LeakyNun.
 
user131753
>**Definition 1.** Let $\mathbf{A}$ and $\mathbf{B}$ be two categories. A functor $\mathscr{D}:\mathbf{A}\to\mathbf{B}$ is said to be a *dual functor from $\mathbf{A}$ to $\mathbf{B}$* iff,

>- $\mathscr{D}_{\text{ob}}:\operatorname{Object}(\mathbf{A})\to\operatorname{Object}(\mathbf{B})$ is a bijection.

>- $\mathscr{D}_{\text{mor}}:\operatorname{Morphism}(\mathbf{A})\to\operatorname{Morphism}(\mathbf{B})$ is a bijection.

>- For all objects $A,B\in \operatorname{Object}(\mathbf{A})$, $${\mathscr{D}}{\large{|}_{\textsf{Hom}_{\mathbf{A}}(A,B)}}:\textsf{Hom}_{\mathbf{A}}(A,B)\to\textsf{Hom}_
 
makes no sense at all to me
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Where exactly?
 
line 3
 
user131753
@LeakyNun "$\mathscr{D}_{\text{mor}}:\operatorname{Morphism}(\mathbf{A})\to\operatorname{M‌​orphism}(\mathbf{B})$ is a bijection." - this one?
 
4:25 PM
right
 
user131753
I am sorry, but I don't understand your confusion. Here $\operatorname{Morphism}(\mathbf{A})$ denotes the class of all morphism of $\mathbf{A}$.
 
never mind
I don't think the fourth line makes sense
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Yes. $\mathscr{D}$ should be $\mathscr{D}_{\text{mor}}$.
 
even so
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Why?
 
4:30 PM
that just isn't the right codomain
 
user131753
@LeakyNun Yes. It should be $\mathscr{D}_{ob}(A)$ instead of $B$, right?
 
user131753
..and similarly.
 
then I don't think it's the right definition
you're just defining an isomorphism functor
 
user131753
5:30 PM
Yes. You are right. I messed up completely. Sorry, for wasting your time @LeakyNun.
 

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