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03:04
Unfreeze
 
9 hours later…
12:24
@Balarka Come to the big boy room
Hey hey hey
So this completely formal object has a meaning
Think of a section of $E \otimes \Lambda^k T^* M$ as $s \otimes \omega$ where $s$ is a section of $E$ and $\omega$ is a $k$-form on $M$
Gotcha
Then it gives rise to a multilinear map $\mathscr{T} : TM \otimes \cdots \otimes TM \to E$ of vector bunldes over $M$ given by $\mathscr{T}_p(X_1(p), \cdots, X_n(p)) = \omega(X_1(p), \cdots, X_n(p)) \cdot s(p)$
Where $X_1, \cdots, X_n$ are sections of $TM$, or vector fields on $M$
(Remember that an $n$-form on $M$ eats $n$ vectors at each point on the tangent space and spits a real number)
That makes sense?
Just about
Yes it does now
Feel free to ask for clarification anytime
12:35
So we obtain an $(n,0)$-tensor and hit it with an $n$-form, and obtain a real number, and thats just the coefficient of our section of $p$ in $E$
Spicy
And this multilinear map is also alternating
Yep
The key point to take from this is that $\Omega^k(M, E) = \Gamma(E \otimes \Lambda^k T^*M)$ should be thought as the space of $E$-valued $k$-forms on $M$ (because every element of this vector space is an alternating multilinear map $TM^{k \otimes} \to E$, which are kind of exactly what forms are, right)
So like if $E$ is the one dimensional trivial line bundle on $M$ this theory agrees with the de Rham chain complex
12:38
Right that if very cool (top paragraph, I know less about the second)
Oh the second is clear actually
I've read the necessary first few pages of Bott and Tu :P
Ah, well, the de Rham chain complex is just $(\Omega^\bullet(M), d)$ where $d$ is the exterior derivative
Yep
If $E = M \times \Bbb R$ then $D = d$, is the point
So $D^2 = d^2 = 0$
Yep
Or if more generally $E = M \times \Bbb R^n$, this is $(\Omega^\bullet \otimes_\Bbb R \Bbb R^n, d)$ but whatever
So for general vector bundles $D^2$ won't be zero as you know already.
12:42
Yep
It happens in this case precisely because $M \times \Bbb R^n$ is a "flat bundle", has no curvature
Unless it's flat apparently
Is this meant to convey 'flat space'
(Which I thought would involve a riemannian metric)
Yes. $D^2$ is actual honest to god measure of how curvy the vector bundle is
Ah, the Riemannian story comes in this way
Let $E = TM$
Then I have the linear map $D : \Gamma(TM) \to \Gamma(TM \otimes T^*M)$.
12:48
Yep
So if $X$ is a vector field on $M$, $D_X$ is an object of the form $Z \otimes \omega$ where $\omega$ is a 1-from on $M$. Define $\nabla : \Gamma(TM) \otimes \Gamma(TM) \to \Gamma(TM)$ by $\nabla_X Y = \omega(Y) Z$.
I hope this is right
Where $D=\nabla$?
No I'm defining a new operator $\nabla$ with different domain/codomain
from $D$
By $D_X$ we mean $D(X)$?
Right sorry
12:54
$\nabla(X\otimes Y)=\nabla_X(Y)$?
Right
I think I may have the definition wrong though. Let me think for a sec
Sure
13:07
@Alex OK, I got a little cinfus there. I think this is right for the following reason
Is $\nabla$ going to be the curvature operator?
Not quite, it's going to be the connection
Isn't $D$ already the connection on the tangent bundle?
In this formalism, yes :) I'm trying to connect that with the formalism of Riemannian geometry
Right
Wasn't sure about the connection :P
13:09
If $E$ is a general vector bundle on $M$ then $D : \Gamma(E) \to \Gamma(E \otimes T^*M)$. Note that $D$ satisfies $D(f s) = f \otimes Ds + df \otimes s$ where $f$ is a function on $M$, because $f \in \Omega^0(M)$. That's what 0-forms are.
@Alex It hurts
Yep
So for $E = TM$, write $D:\Gamma(TM) \to \Gamma(TM \otimes T^*M)$ as $D(X) = Z_X \otimes \omega_X$.
Notation be confusing as fuck but I think you understand me
I think you are swapping the tensors around
in the one above your pain
Not that it really matters with the braiding isomorphisms on tensor spaces
Oh right that doesn't make sense.
Let me redo that
$D(fs) = fDs + s \otimes df$
gusta
13:13
The first term is $Df$, which lives in $\Gamma(E \otimes T^*M)$, scaled by a function $f \in C^\infty(M)$ using the natural $C^\infty(M)$-module structure on the space of sections on any vector bundle over $M$
And the second term is switched, as you pointed out
Sounds good
OK dope
So back to pain
I have $D(X) = Z_X \otimes \omega_X$ explicitly written down in components
I then define $\nabla : \Gamma(TM) \otimes \Gamma(TM) \to \Gamma(TM)$ by $\nabla_X Y = \omega_X(Y) \cdot Z_X$. ($\omega_X$ is a $1$-form, so I can feed it a vector field $Y$ and get a scalar function on $M$ which I am scaling the vector field $Z_X$ by)
Yep
Wait maybe I'm confused, what are we claiming $Z_X$ is?
It's the vector field extracting out of the 1st component of $D(X)$
Which is a (1, -1) tensor
So I take the (1, 0) tensor component
Okay good
Good good
13:20
Now I want to claim $\nabla_X (fY) = X(f) Y + f \nabla_X Y$
Which should be like a long computation :P
Using $D(fX) =fD(X) + df \otimes X$
Exercise to the reader :')
The worst part of differential geometry is notation man
It fucking sucks
I can feel it
Could be worse
>be me
>shinichi mochizuki
Jesus god
>mfw wagon wheels
13:23
Oh god
But yeah this dude $\nabla_\bullet \bullet : \Gamma(TM) \otimes \Gamma(TM) \to \Gamma(TM)$ is linear on the bottom (X) component and Leibniz on the actual (Y) component
lol notation
lmao
I'm pulling a Mochizuki on this
I actually follow surprisingly on that one :P
So $D$ took a vector field and gave us another vector field and a section of the cotangent bundle, and we used them to define a connection which satisfies all the connection crap
Yeah
It eats two vector fields and spits one
You should think of $\nabla_X Y$ as the right notion of "derivating $Y$ along $X$"
Hmm I don't have a good picture in my head for that
13:27
Very approximately, think of moving $Y$ a little bit along the integral curves of $X$ on $M$ and thinking about rate of change
Maybe there is a google image :P
This is very rough and not honest
But it's like, linear in $X$ and Leibniz in $Y$... exactly what derivatives should be :)
Right :')
There is no canonical way to construct one on a given manifold. There are infinitely many choices of connections
BUT
if $M$ has a Riemannian metric $g$, there is a unique connection $\nabla$ such that it is compatible with the metric i.e. $Zg(X, Y) = g(\nabla_Z X, Y) + g(X, \nabla_Z Y)$ plus another technical condition which says $\nabla_X Y - \nabla_Y X = [X, Y]$
The first condition is like saying $(f \cdot g)' = f' \cdot g + f \cdot g'$ where cdot means dot product
instead replaced by the riemannian metric
the second condition... nobody knows
:O
THONK
But that theorem (called the fundamental theorem of Riemannian geometry) is remarkable because it says any geometry coming from the connection is intrinsic to the metric geometry
That's pretty beast
Is this in every good DG book?
yeah
Yep
It's in doCarmo at least. Like 10 pages in
(don't quote me on that number)
Uh oh
That's how noob my DG is
Got DoCarmo sitting 1 meter from me
Going to quote you
Page 10: diffeomorphisms
13:34
Shite
Actually page 55
:3
Page 55
Sniped :(
ded
Wow so this knowledge is just sitting here in this book I stole frm my friend (before he moved 1000km away)
Oh schnoop dawg
I'ma become a differential geometer in finite time
13:36
I'ma die in finite time
me too fam
That's awesome though, that you picked up the book right before he left.
He let me borrow it ages back
Maybe destiny desired you to be a differential geometer
and it sat in my locker at uni
And then I got banished from my desk due to finishing my thesis, and he left :')
13:38
@Alex adopts deep Morgan Freeman voice Compared to the age of the universe, that was infinitisimal, so it still was a close call
Now the sheet will I connect $D^2$
@BalarkaSen lmao
Too much bruce almighty or something
Great movie
Ah, so $D^2$
So $D$ gets upgraded with extended leibniz
Wait $\nabla$ is okay
13:41
So the extended Leibniz was $D(s \otimes \omega) = s \otimes d\omega + (-1)^k \omega \wedge Ds$ right
Something like that
Ok that's it
I think first two terms are twisted maybe
Wait no
They're good
Yeah the wedge product acts on $\omega$ and $Ds$
which are $E$-valued differential forms
Yep
so wedge makes sense
If you compute $D^2(X)$, which lives in $\Gamma(TM \otimes T^*M \wedge T^*M)$ so is a (1, -2)-tensor and you feed that two vector fields $Y$ and $Z$ you should obtain the Riemann curvature $R(X, Y)Z := \nabla_X \nabla_Y Z - \nabla_Y \nabla_X Z - \nabla_{[X, Y]} Z$
Which is $(1, 0)$-valued itself
But again it's a long ass computation
This kind of justifies $D^2$ to be called curvature, as it agrees with the Riemannian notion of curvature for $E = TM$
Seems legit
I guess I have to do these calculations at least once in my life
Lest I live a half life
13:50
That's what my standpoint on this is
I do it once and then I forget
All of these have a much more geometric interpretation anyway so half the time I have those in mind
But even forgetting the Riemannian story, the de Rham formalism is insanely cool. You can do dope stuff with it
Thanks man, this is spicy stuff
No problem! I just knew what I told you, which is not much
I'll have to do solidify this, since I'm going to be talking a little about the other end of this (the algebraic tangent sheafy side)
Gotta do that tangent/cotangent sheaf for D-modules
Already gave one talk, but it turned into a talk on coherent sheaves
talk two will be the actual D-module stuff I was meant to get to
Including stuff on connections
(and curvature if I can understand it in time :') )
afk for a bit
13:56
Dam son I keep hearing about D-modules all the time
No idea what they are tho

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