I might have been a bit overenthusiastic with my criticism. I took your comment to mean that the majority of music uses only the diatonic notes, rather than that the majority of music uses mainly the diatonic notes. I'd like to address your other points but perhaps that'd be better in chat?
I don't want to seem nit picky but you've raised an interesting point in the last comment, so take this as a discussion rather than a criticism. I feel I was overly harsh with my initial comment, based on a misreading of what you were getting at
neverthe less the point about key signatures is an interesting one
Most mainstream music isn't written down at the time of composition to be fair. Folk traditions are generally aural traditions too. But the fact is that the conventions of the only reasonable orthographic system we have are fundamentally derived from common practice music
Personally, if I'm writing a transcription of a piece of music that used the flat 7 far more than the major 7th, I'm going to use the major key signature: because that's the convention we have: there isn't really a more convenient way of writing a pitch centre
it gets even weirder when notating music that is strongly modal, (without much interchange) but uses a scale based around a different set of notes
when a more "faithful" representation of the modal nature of a song would have a single G sharp in the key signature (notice that this would produce a key signature with both a B flat AND a C sharp, and no F sharp in the piece was tranposed to A, MAD)
So the same thing goes if I write the music down for any piece of music. What is the tonic, and what is the tonic chord's tonality. Write using that key signature. That's generally the convention followed if you want to write down a transcription of the blues, because what other option do you have? It's not like writing in mixolydian would really "solve" the problem of the music having a different tonal system than common practice music
so you may as well just stick to the established convention and write with the established system of key signatures, even if that is derived from a system which no longer applies. After all, the English language's orthography is full of silent letters and inconsistent vowel transcriptions: many with an etymological reason behind them but many because of what the grammarians thought was the "correct" derivation of the word despite it actually not having any linguistic merit.
And yet it's still perfectly adequate to write these sentences to you despite its anachronistic aspects and often plain senselessness
Just as an aside by the way, I really respect your contributions to this site so I really hope I haven't pissed you off here!
Also, I'm eager to here your thoughts on the answer I posted about bVII chords when you have some time!!! :)
I spent more time on it that I should have, probably, but I really ended up going "down the rabbit hole" so to speak.