Well if you use my exercise you end up with $V/U$ being isomorphic to the line perpendicular to your line of slope 2
That 2 - 1 = 1 dimensional
Anonymous
Could you check if my definition of quotient space is correct, first of all:
Anonymous
Suppose $U$ is a subspace of $V$, then the quotient space $V/U$ is the set of all affine subsets of $V$ parallel to $U$ (i.e. the set of all lines of slope 2, in this case....right?)
Anonymous
So, you're saying that the set of all lines of slope $2$ is isomorphic to the line perpendicular to the line of slope $2$? Or am I doing something wrong?
Ah, I think it's just this: Consider a map $P:V\to(V/U)$. Then $\text{null}(P)=U$, since if you take any element of $U$, it produces the zero vector in $V/U$ after being acted upon by the linear map $P$.