I think I brought that up already, but I don't remember what was the stance on it, and I am too lazy to look up the transcript. Is there a reason to keep the following, or could we do without? In any case, I guess there would be heavy editing required.
The target is to obtain saturated pressure of water at 200 ºC using PHI-PHI (fugacity coefficients) approach,so it means it's a VLE of water only,so we write equilibrium condition:
$f_i(l)=f_i(v)$ (*)
which $f_i(l)/P=PHI(l)$ and same for $PHI(v)$ (note that $Y_i=X_i=1$ ) ,substituting into (*) ...
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