@SimplyBeautifulArt nah. You are way better than me. I could probably improve functions, but you are the big numbers guy. I'm the "differential equations/geometry/logic/number theory" guy.
@Nilknarf my paper would be helpful, but I honestly don't know the piecewise constant resulting. Read the section on implied integration. It would be quite helpful.
Wikipedia claims that
$$\int_0^\infty W\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) \,\text dx=\sqrt{2\pi}$$
and a numerical computation seems to confirm this.
How can this result be proven?
i surmise that they're algebrae will relate in some way to the geodesics of their respective surfaces
and also their concept of circles
in other words: i believe that the algebra of a matrix relates inherently to the surface geometry it is written upon assuming that you don't just project a euclidean one.
Does $\int_0^{\infty} \left( p + q W \left( r e^{- s x + t} \right) + u x \right)
e^{- x} d x$ (with 6 variables) where W is the Lambert W function (also known as ProductLog in Mathematica) have a closed-form expression? If we drop the variable $s$ from the expression Maple is able calculate
$$
...
@Nilknarf that's the point of the question essentially.
how would it work and has anyone studied it
there is an implied sense of being... creative.
i mean that in a healthy sense. I imagine that there is a logical means by which one could think out a way of interpreting matrix multiplication with toroidal matrices.
perhaps it might even lead to ways of expressing different exotic isometries
matrices do not represent the isometries of torus's very well
@Nilknarf the question is pretty general. So... to be fair one could try anything that they see as easy for them. I phrased it so that while it is definitively answerable, one can somewhat come up a general idea. :-)
matrices relate to vector which relate to points. So it might also be possible that a non-euclidean matrix gives a way of parameterizing points that map properly to other types of surfaces.
Wikipedia claims that
$$\int_0^\infty W\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) \,\text dx=\sqrt{2\pi}$$
and a numerical computation seems to confirm this.
How can this result be proven?
This problem was posted in I&S
$$ \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{\log x \log (1+x) \log (1+x+x^{2})}{(1-x)(1+x^{2})}\,dx \approx -0.223434$$
I am not sure if there exists a closed form but it seems worth trying. I am completely clueless on how to start with this beast. It is worth saying that $1-x^3= (1-...
Let $f(x)=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(x,n)$ and $f(x,y)$ be a smooth function of two variables. Then, $$\sum_{k=1}^nf(x,k)=nf(x)+\sum_{k=1}^\infty f(x,k)-f(x,k+n)$$
Now the RHS is continuous with respect to $n$, so you can differentiate or integrate it
Haven't found it particularly useful yet though.
Hm... one could try Taylor expanding the Harmonic numbers...
Odd. When I see $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty f(x,k)-f(x,k+n)$$ I think $$f(x,1)-f(x,n+1)+f(x,2)-f(x,n+2)+\cdots$$ which I would write as $$\left[f(x,1)+f(x,2)+\cdots f(x,n)\right]+\left[f(x,n+1)+f(x,n+2)+f(x,n+3)+\cdots\right] - \left[f(x,n+1)+f(x,n+2)+f(x,n+3)+\cdots\right] = \left[f(x,1)+f(x,2)+\cdots f(x,n)\right] = \sum_{k=1}^n f(x,k)$$
@SimplyBeautifulArt where did my logic go wrong there?