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06:16
Hi sir@JohnRennie
Hi :-)
For an isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas is change in enthalpy zero?
The definition of enthalpy is H = U + PV
Yes
And since PV = nRT, if T is constant that means PV is constant
And also internal energy is proportional to temperature, so if T is constant U is constant
06:19
Yes
So since both U and PV are constant that means H must be constant as well.
So yes, ΔH = 0 in an isothermal expansion.
So can we say PV work done is 0?
No. The product PV is constant, but work done is ∫PdV not just PV.
In an isothermal expansion the gas absorbs heat from the environment then uses that heat to do work.
The internal energy stays constant because the work done exactly equals the heat absorbed.
∆H =∆U + ∆(PV)
So work done is non zero then ∆PV = -P∆V?
Yes, but Δ(PV) is not equal to the work.
06:26
can we write ∆(PV) as ∆PV + P∆V?
You can write d(PV) = PdV + VdP
But to get Δ(PV) you need to integrate the right hand side.
Δ(PV) = ∫PdV + ∫VdP
And the first term gives the work.
That must mean ∫VdP gives the heat absorbed, though I hadn't thought about this before.
So in any case del H should remain 0. theres this question, 10g of argon is compressed isothermally and reversibly at a temperature of 27°C from 10l to 5l. Calculate q w ∆E ∆H
They have not mentioned if its an ideal gas or not but the solution booklet uses pv=nrt and also says that ∆E=0 . But they say that ∆ H = work done.
Argon is an ideal gas to a very good approximation.
Can you photograph and upload the solution?
Yes just a second
They have ignored ∫VdP
Yes, this is only true if the pressure is constant.
06:38
But its a reversible process...
6
Q: What would be the enthalpy change for a isothermal expansion?

Nitro phenolI was doing a question on thermodynamics and came across this one stating During isothermal expansion of gas of an ideal gas : a) Internal energy decreases b) Enthalpy increases c) Enthalpy reduces to zero d) Enthalpy remains unchanged I cannot agree to any of these as $\Delta H = \Delta U + W$...

Can you post the question? Maybe I have misunderstood what the question is asking.
Okay
No.7
I think the answer is wrong.
Yes OK
If it were an irreversible process, it could have been correct ?
I'm always reluctant to assume the answer is wrong, because it usually isn't, but in this case I don't understand how ΔH can be non-zero.
06:50
Yes
@sanya I'm not sure to be honest. In any case it would depend on the exact details of the irreversible process.
Okay
Thankyou for the help:)
You're welcome :-)
 
2 hours later…
08:24
@KavinIshwaran Hi :-)
@JohnRennie Hi !
Just one minute
The question is straight forward but.
My method does not give the correct answer
I just added the angular momentum of the disc in self rotation plus the angular momentum while it revolves
in the both case angular frequency is same since the radius are same.
Reading now ...
@KavinIshwaran I get (C)
they have given 5
Ah, wait ...
The MOI of B as it rotates about A is ¹⁄₂MR² + M(2R)²
08:39
So it's 4¹⁄₂MR² and therefore L = 4¹⁄₂MωR²
And the MOI of B rotating on its own axis is ¹⁄₂MR² so L = ¹⁄₂MωR²
Add them and you get 5MωR²
I missed a factor of 2 when calculating the MOI of B about the centre of A.
Does this make sense?
So the answer is 5.
@JohnRennie If we consider the axis through point of contact. Can we find the angular momentum ?
Possibly. Do you want to try it?
Yes
Actually I did but I got 4MwR^2
08:45
I'm not sure it would work. It would mean we were no longer finding L about the COM of B, so then we can't use the COM of B to find L about the centre of A.
Oh !
@JohnRennie Can you explain why it does not work a little in detail ?
I'm not sure I can explain ...
To be honest I have never been entirely comfortable about adding MOIs when we have multiple axes.
But I would always use the COMs of the objects i.e. calculate L about the COM then use the COM to calculate L about the main axis.
I was not sure if we could take COM as I thought we have to consider radius of gyration
 
2 hours later…
11:14
@JohnRennie In this question, it is written that the COM of B is rotating about COM of A with ω. That should mean that the velocity of COM of B should be ω(2R). Since A isn't slipping on B, doesn't this mean that A is rotating about its own axis with 2ω and not ω? That would make L of B about its own axis as MωR².
11:29
@brainfreeze No, the angular velocity of B is just ω.
To see this sketch the diagram and put a spot or some other mark on B where it touches A, then imagine B rolling all the way round A so the spot rotates relative to the centre of B.
You'll find that when B returns to its original position the spot will have rotated round B just once.
Or try it in real life with two coins.
12:06
https://youtu.be/FUHkTs-Ipfg?t=209 Any point on the boundary of the coin (or B) rotates through an angle of 4π by the time B reaches its original position. Velocity of COM of B is 2ωR, and its COM is rotating about COM of A in a circle with radius 2R. So it takes 2π/ω to complete one revolution. This implies that angular velocity of B about its axis should be 4π/(2π/ω) = 2ω.
Where am I going wrong here?
12:53
@JohnRennie Hello:) Been a while.
I have a question regarding the derivation of the jeans mass
my notes set gives the Jeans mass as $$M_{J} = \frac{3 k_{B} T R}{2 G m}$$
However I do not know how this is derived
I worked from the equation $$\frac{G M_J m}{r} = \frac{3}{2} N k_{B} T$$
And I got $$M_J = \frac{3 N k_B T r}{2 G m}$$
Is it possible to transform this equation to the one given in my notes? If so, how?
 
4 hours later…
16:52
@JohnRennie Hi !
Hi :-)
@JohnRennie, hey! You got any further into that problem I shared?
The two cylinders problem?
I've given up on it. Sorry :-(
17:00
No problem @JohnRennie
@mechanist there is a solution online toppr.com/ask/question/…
@JohnRennie Why curl of a conservative force should be zero ?
Roughly, the curl of a vector field is kind of a rotation, and if there is any rotation that must mean points in the field move in circles.
So basically whenever the curl is non-zero it means you can find field lines that form loops.
And if any field line is a loop that means you can integrate the field round the loop back to your starting position and get a non-zero result.
And that means the field is non-conservative.
@KavinIshwaran thanks for that, and you should read about this from feynman's book. His explanation is nice, especially since we aren't taught vector calculus yet.
if you have the xtra time ofc
17:08
@JohnRennie electric field is conservative only in static condition or always ?
@mechanist Ok :-)
@KavinIshwaran The electric field is conservative if and only if dB/dt = 0
Any magnetic field that changes with time will induce a non-conservative electric field. In fact this is how electricity generators work.
Ah Yes.
Suppose if we have a electric field changing with time, it wont be conservative ?
When we say a field is conservative we normally mean if we integrate round a loop in space at constant time we always get zero.
The at constant time bit mean we are effectively taking a snapshot of the field to do the calculation.
Ok so we are taking a static condition.
So I don't think the field can change during the integration by definition.
17:15
I see
@JohnRennie Thank you for the clarifications :-)
You're welcome. Bye :-)

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