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04:22
@JohnRennie @satan29 Suppose a neutral conducting sphere and Q charge are placed at a center to center seperation r , what will be the potential due to the induced charge on sphere at it's pole
The answer by calculations is negative but shouldn't it be zero?
@Lllt Inside the sphere the field is zero. Yes?
Yes @JohnRennie sir
And the field inside the sphere is the sum of:
1. the field due to the point charge
2. the field due to the charge induced on the sphere
YES
The second one is zero at the center
We can find due to first one at center
Adding gives net potential
$\frac{kQ}{r}$
Yes. The net potential moving from the front of the sphere to the back of the sphere is zero because the field is zero.
So subtract off the change in potential caused by the point charge and you have the change in potential caused by the field of the sphere.
04:34
Yes I did and got the answer
$$\frac{kQ}{r}-\frac{kQ}{\sqrt{r^2+R^2}}$$
This shows that -ve and +ve induced charge's distribution are not same
Correct :-)
But why does this happens that the induced charge distribution is not same
Because the field that the sphere is sitting in is not uniform.
If you put the sphere in a uniform electric field then you would get a symmetrical charge distribution.
Yes I got that it's clear Thankyou :-)
Negative induced charge will increase more rapidly than the positive charge , am I right?
05:09
@JohnRennie Could you help me with a question?
@caramalizedTomato Yes, of course. What's the question?
I have posted it, above Lllt's message
11 hours ago, by caramalizedTomato
user image
11 hours ago, by caramalizedTomato
Why is it that we ignore the component of velocity while writing the eqn for the element dx?
Yep, btw how do you do that? I mean reply with my message visible?
05:14
39 secs ago, by John Rennie
user image
Alright now I know it
@JohnRennie So what don't understand is why the induced EMF is indipendant of the angle of the small element dx?
Anyhow, I'm not sure what you mean by:
> Why is it that we ignore the component of velocity while writing the eqn for the element dx?
05:32
@Lllt Is the charge inside the sphere or outside?
@JohnRennie Sorry to keep you waiting
Ah, OK, so for each length d𝓁 of the wire you consider the components of the velocity parallel to and normal to the wire.
So what I am trying to ask is, is the EMF induced in the small part dx of the parabolic rod dependant of the sine of the angle?
@JohnRennie Why parallel component?
The two components of the velocity produce EMFs that are normal to each other. The component normal to the wire produces an EMF that runs along the length of the wire, and this component will end up being summed along the wire to produce the total potential difference between the ends of the wire.
The component parallel to the wire produces an EMF that is directed sideways to the wire i.e. it creates a potential difference between the two edges of the wire. This component does not contribute to the potential difference between the ends of the wire.
OK so far?
05:40
> is the EMF induced in the small part dx of the parabolic rod dependant of the sine of the angle?
So the EMF measured along the length of the wire is dependent on the sine of the angle.
@AdilMohammed Outside
But I guess you're asking something slightly different because you're considering the distance dx measured along the y axis not the distance d𝓁 measured along the length of the wire. Yes?
(I can draw a diagram if it isn't clear what I mean)
Actually I was trying to do the latter but just ended up creating the wrong diagram
Along the length of the wire indeed
The potential difference dV along the length of the wire d𝓁 does depend on sin θ, but if you consider the distance dx along the vertical axis then the sin θ is going to cancel out and disappear.
Is it axis specific? I mean if I chose the x axis it should give me the same result ie. the cancelling of the sin$\theta$
05:48
The problem is that along the x axis there is no change in the potential.
The change in the potential happens normal to the velocity.
@JohnRennie How so? $dl$ does have a component in $dx$
Consider this diagram ...
@JohnRennie B,D ?
I've drawn in two more rods shown by the red and blue lines.
05:58
All three rods have the same velocity V₀ î
The potential difference between the ends of the blue rod is zero. Yes?
@caramalizedTomato the equation for motional EMF is $\mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B} .\mathbf{dl}$
@satan29 Also C
@JohnRennie Yes
And if we combine the red and blue rods they begin and end at the same place as the curved rod.
So the PD across the red rod has to be the same as the PD across the curved rod.
@satan29 yes
@JohnRennie That's what the integral would tell us right?
vxB will be in y direction, so we will end up with $\hat{y}.\mathbf{dl}$ which means we care about the y component only
06:02
Part C is the purple rod, and the same argument applies.
So as Satan29 says, only the displacement in the y direction matters.
@JohnRennie So any rod of any structure with the same vertical distance b/w the ends will be equivalent to this case
exactly
Got it
Thnx @JohnRennie @satan29
$B_{0}V_{0} \int_{y1}^{y2} (1+ (y/L)^{\beta} dy$ is the equation you get finally. as long as y1 and y2 are same, the EMF of the rod will be the same no matter the shape
06:08
@caramalizedTomato :-)
@satan29 Yeah that seems plausible now
@JohnRennie one more thing, a current carrying wire experiences a force in presence of magnetic field
38 mins ago, by John Rennie
The component parallel to the wire produces an EMF that is directed sideways to the wire i.e. it creates a potential difference between the two edges of the wire. This component does not contribute to the potential difference between the ends of the wire.
Is this what causes it?
All these forces originate from the Lorentz force.
If you have a wire carrying a current then the conduction electrons in that wire are moving at the drift velocity. Yes?
@JohnRennie Yeah I mean not the EMF itself but the force from which this EMF along the edges is generated
06:21
So in a stationary wire carrying a current we have electrons moving at the drift velocity v relative to the field B and we get a Lorentz force on each electron F = ev x B.
These forces on the individual electrons sum up to give the total force on the wire.
Integrate this force and you get the potential difference.
Aha, I understand it now thank you sir
=)
 
2 hours later…
08:42
@JohnRennie Sir there?
@Lllt Hi :-)
Hello sir
Suppose we have two conductors
One having charge Q1 and potential V1 and other having charge Q2 and potential V2
Suppose we coonect them with a conducting wire
OK ... ?
Now why will charge flow from higher potential to lower potential, I know it's a fundamental property but how does that happen here
Is there some electric field from higher potential conductor to lower potential conductor
If the two conductors are at different potentials then when we connect them with a wire there will be a potential gradient along the wire i.e. the potential must change continuously as we move along the wire from one conductor to the other. Yes?
08:46
One minute
Yes
So if we calculate dV/dx, where x is the distance along the wire, then dV/dx ≠ 0.
Yes
and this dv/dx gives electric field along the wire
Exactly :-)
Are you thinking that because the wire is a conductor the field inside it should be zero?
Yes
The field is zero inside a conductor at equilibrium
i.e. when no currents are flowing.
And when we first connect the wire obviously the system is not at equilibrium and a current is going to flow along the wire.
08:50
when we say potential of a conductor , we mean potential of every point on it?
??
Let's make an analogy with a container of gas. At equilibrium the pressure is the same everywhere in the container and the gas is stationary. Yes?
Yes
So in this this case the pressure on the container is easy to define because the pressure is the same everywhere inside the container.
But now suppose we have a partition down the middle of the container and we have different pressures either side of the container.
Yes
Then at time zero we remove the partition.
For the short time it takes the gas to equilibrate the pressure is different in different parts of the container. Yes?
08:55
ok so at time dt we cannot tell exact pressure near the places where the partition was there
Exactly.
@JohnRennie Yes
In this case it doesn't make sense to ask "what is the pressure of the container" because the pressure is not constant in the container.
Yes
I guess you could ask "what is the average pressure", but this is a different question.
08:56
Yes
No I wanted to ask what does the term potential of conductor mean, Does it mean the potential of every point on it?
And this applies to a conductor. If it is at equilibrium, i.e. the current is zero, then the potential is the same everywhere in the conductor and it makes sense to ask what the potential of the conductor is.
> Does it mean the potential of every point on it?
At equilibrium the potential is the same at every point. Yes?
Yes
So the potential of the conductor is the same as the potential everywhere in the conductor.
Because every point in the conductor has the same potential.
There is only one "potential" for the whole conductor, and we take that as the potential of the conductor.
@JohnRennie Why it will change continuously
If the potential changes discontinuously that means E = dV/dx = ∞. Yes?
09:01
Yes
But you cannot have an infinite field in any material. It would exert an infinite force on the electrons in the material and that force would tear the material to pieces.
Yes
The field must be finite, and therefore dV/dx cannot be infinite.
and therefore dv/dx must have some value everywhere
09:05
So when we connect two conductors and we connect them the charge flows from higher potential to lower potential and to find electric field we can do -dv/dx
Clear Sir :-)
@JohnRennie Sir will there be no charge on wire at electrostatic condidtions
When the two conductors and the wire have settled down to an equilibrium state the potential will be the same everywhere, including the wire.
This means the potential of the wire is non-zero. Yes?
09:15
Yes
Imagine we now disconnect the wire from the two spheres (or whatever the two conductors are). We can do this without changing anything because if the potential is the same everywhere we can disconnect the wire without changing the potential. OK so far?
Yes
So, we now have a piece of wire at some potential V. But before we started, i.e. before we connected the wire, our piece of wire had a potential of zero. So the potential of the wire has now changed. Yes?
Yes
And that change can only have happened because the charge on the wire changed from zero to some non-zero value when we connected it. So our connecting wire must be charged after we have connected it.
09:20
yes
9 mins ago, by Lllt
@JohnRennie Sir will there be no charge on wire at electrostatic condidtions
So the answer to your question is "no".
Yes clear , there will be some charge on the wire
10:01
@RaMathuzen what do u mean by "we can only use P_o*(l-h)"?
10:59
@RobinSingh What I meant was, When you submerge the capillary tube in water because of surface tension of water there will be a capillary rise, let's say a height H (H < l) Then you seal the open end of the capillary So now the product "PV" for the air trapped is $P_{0} \cdot A (l - H) $
where A is the Cross-sectional Area and $P_{0} $ is the atmospheric pressure. Then now you submerge the capillary a distance "x" in water such that the level of water is same inside and outside the capillary So the product "PV" for air trapped now is P' \cdot A (l-x) $ , Right ?
@RobinSingh
@RaMathuzen I reckon that first they sealed the tube and then put it in water coz note that l=110mm but water actually rises to a height of 10.3m. So if what u say is correct then the water would just come out of the upper open end of the tube in the first case
@RobinSingh Yeah
Thanks
@RaMathuzen Is that a "yea thanks I understood" yeah or a "bad worded question and i am not really satisfied" yeah? xD
11:14
The former
I did calculate H now after you said
 
10 hours later…
Ali
Ali
21:33
Suppose there is a mixture of gases kept in a container of total volume V which is pressed by a piston which exerts constant pressure of P. There is one gas of n1 moles occupying partial volume V1 and exerting partial pressure of P1.

So, we know that P×V=N(total moles of all gases)×R×T

We also know that P1×V1=n1RT

We also know that P1×V =n1RT(Dalton's law)

And also P1× V =n1RT(Amagat's law of partial volume ).

Which of my equations can't be applied here, if any ? If all the equations are true, they give very stupid results.
@JohnRennie or @satan29 can you answer this ?
or anyone who wants to,please do

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