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03:34
Hello @JohnRennie sir. I had posted this question which I couldn't understand completely even after getting an answer. Can you please take a look at it? (The comments at the end of the recieved answer help to understand my issue better). Here's the link: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/666052/…
 
1 hour later…
04:48
@JohnRennie hi
@AshishAhuja Hi :-)
When we talk about a transistor acting as an amplifier in it's active state in the common base configuration, could you explain why the collector current is only dependent on the voltage between the base and the emitter, and not the voltage between the base and the collector? I found this and it makes sense but I cannot understand why the amount of the carriers depend only on $V_{BE}$
The collector current is not dependent on the base emitter voltage, it depends on the base emitter current.
To be honest I don't remember the exact mechanism, but every electron that flows into the base triggers β electrons to flow across the base-collector junction.
Where β is the gain.
@JohnRennie but the answer I've linked above says it depends on $V_{BE}$..
Well it kind of does because $I_{BE}$ depends on $V_{BE}$, but the actual mechanism is related to the flow of current not the voltage.
04:54
ok then could you explain why $I_{BE}$ does not depend on $V_{CB}$?
(in the active state)
You can now see why the collector voltage makes no difference. Every electron flowing into the base allows β electrons to cross the collector-base junction. If you double or triple the collector voltage it makes no difference because the current is limited to β electrons for every base electron.
The transistor is acting like a current limiter i.e. it limits the current that flows through it regardless of what voltage you apply.
@JohnRennie I agree with this that for every electron flowing into the base $\beta$ electrons flow into the collector, i.e $I_C = \beta I_B$, so if you increase $I_B$, $I_C$ should increase. What I don't understand is why increasing $V_{BC}$ will not increase $I_B$
Oh, wait, I misread your question. Sorry :-(
The current doesn't depend on $V_{CE}$.
The collector base junction is like a reverse biased diode. Yes?
@JohnRennie yes
Ah, I misread your question again :-( I thought we were discussing common emitter.
05:01
ok :D
I'm not familiar with the common base layout. To be honest I never learned transistors at college. I learned about them because as a boy I used to spend my time playing with electronic circuits. Computers didn't exist in those days so we nerds used to mess around with electronics instead :-)
So my knowledge is based on experience, and common base circuits were rarely used so I never got to learn them.
oh yes I used to also play around with transistors, nowadays it is much easier I think since you can make circuits on breadboards. Making a one bit adder was probably the best thing I've ever made.
I'm yet to study common emitter, I think I will run into the same issue there. I will come back then.
 
1 hour later…
06:11
@JohnRennie hi
same issue in the common emitter configuration, I don't understand why in the active region $V_{CE}$ has negligible effect on $I_C$ (this can be seen in the output characteristic when $I_C$ asymptotes as $V_{CE}$ keeps increasing)
06:36
@JohnRennie hi, are you there?
07:03
The electric flux through a surface is proportional to the number of field lines cutting
the area element of a surface are placed normal to electric field
@JohnRennie Sir is the above definition of flux correct I came up with??
07:23
@AshishAhuja Hi, sorry I had to drop out for a bit. I'm around now for a couple of hours.
@Lllt Hi :-)
Hello sir
I'm not sure it's useful to think about field lines in this context. A "field line" is a vaguely defined concept so it's not useful in definitions.
@JohnRennie Yes you are right I asked about this on main site and users said the same
@JohnRennie But This term is being used by my teachers and that's causing confusion
Ok let me tell you what is the source of confusion
Can you draw a figure for me??
I have another question to answer at the moment. I'll ping you when I'm free. Explain what figure you want me to draw and I'll do it as soon as I'm free.
Ok, the figure consists of a disc , a open hemispherical shell and a rough arbitrary surface having same axis
Please ping me when you are here:-)
08:08
@Lllt Like this?
Yes but that arbitrary surface is like deformed hemispherical surface i.e it is 2-D with circular base
Yes exactly
The question was to find flux through all these surfaces when there's a uniform electric field left to right
The disc one is easy
It will simply be $\Phi=E\pi r^2$
Let me redraw the deformed surface so it doesn't stick out past the disk ...
The hemispherical one will be $$\Phi=E\int ds \cos\theta$$
08:15
The disk is indeed easy, but actually both the others are just as easy.
Yes I know, please don't reveal
OK :-)
Your equation applies to all three surfaces, the only difference is the angle θ in the integral.
I was told that the same number of electric field lines cross disc , hemisphere , and that deformed one and therefore flux through each is same
Do you think it is a vague explanation?
To see why this is true let's consider the hemisphere.
Yes
08:19
Suppose we treat this as a closed surface with a disk on one side and the hemisphere on the other side.
The volume inside the surface does not contain any charges, and field lines can only start or end on a charge. Yes?
Hmm we cannot use Gauss' Law :-)
It is one line proof with it.
We are kind of using Gauss's law. The total flux through the surface has to be zero because the charge inside it is zero. Yes?
Yes
So the flux that flows in through the disk side has to be equal and opposite to the flux that flows out through the hemisphere side.
Yes
08:21
And we have already decided that the flux that flows into the disk side is πr²E
Yes
So the flux through the hemisphere must also be πr²E
Yes
So there's our answer. And this argument also applies to the deformed surface.
@JohnRennie So by easy you meant this method
08:23
Yes, but you got there yourself :-)
Yes But I meant something else as following
The flux through hemispherical surface is
The hemispherical one will be $$\Phi=E\int ds \cos\theta$$
$$\int ds \cos\theta$$ means summation of components of infinitesimal areas perpendicular to electric field
Yess??
The areas dS are not perpendicular
dS cosθ is the the component of the area perpendicular to the field.
Yes I meant that only
OK then
Then $$\int ds \cos\theta$$ represents summation of all component of the area which are perpendicular to the field.
Yes??
08:28
Yes
One minute I will draw the diagram
If we go and stick all the components to circular base , then they completely fill the circle
Yes?
Yes. The summed area normal to the axis just adds up to the area of the disk on the left side.
Yes
And again results come out to be E\pi r^2
08:35
Yes.
That's why I was saying electric flux represents relayive no. of field lines which pass through the component of area of a elemental surface which is normal to electric field
and not the following one
electric flux represents _relative no. of field lines which pass through the area of a elemental surface _
Am I right??
Every field line that passes through the component normal to the field, dS cosθ, also passes through dS. Yes?
Yes?
Oh so both definitions become equivalent.
Yes
That was the point I was making earlier.
Yes it's completely clear now
08:39
OK :-)
Thankyou @JohnRennie Sir :-)
This stuff can be hard at first, but when you get the hang of it you'll find it's simpler than you think.
2 hours ago, by Ashish Ahuja
same issue in the common emitter configuration, I don't understand why in the active region $V_{CE}$ has negligible effect on $I_C$ (this can be seen in the output characteristic when $I_C$ asymptotes as $V_{CE}$ keeps increasing)
@JohnRennie True , but you are always there to make them easy for us , Thankyou :-)
@AshishAhuja Hi :-)
This the key point to understand about transistors. They are current limiters.
If the base current is Ib then a transistor limits the collector current to βIb and this does not depend on the collector voltage.
(in the active region)
08:43
yes agreed but shouldn't changing $V_{CE}$ have an effect on $I_B$?
No. Any current that flows across the (reverse biased) collector-base junction flows straight through the base and out of the emitter.
The base-emitter junction is like a forward biased diode so current flowing both into the base and into the collector flows out of the emitter.
The base-emitter current is determined only by the voltage applied to the base and the resistor in series with the base.
ok so if we hypothetically change $V_{CE}$ by a large amount, something in the circuit must change right? $V_{BE}$ does not change and neither does $I_B$ and hence neither does $I_C$, so what does change?
The effective resistance of the (reverse biased) collector-base junction changes.
With no base current the collector-base junction is like a reverse bised diode so no current flows through it.
But when we introduce a current into the base this makes the collector-base junction "leaky" i.e. some current can get across it.
ah yes I see. $R_O = \frac{V_{CE}}{I_C}$ changes, which limits the change in the current $I_C$, right?
In effect a base current reduces the resistance of the junction from ∞ to some finite value.
@AshishAhuja Yes.
08:51
ok I think I understand now, I was confused because I did not realize that the resistance would change hence it felt weird that $I_C$ was staying constant. Looks like "dynamic" resistance is indeed an apt name.
thanks
OK :-)
Hello.
That is the cross section of a hemisphere, and a charge +q is placed at O.
A second charge Q is placed at one of the positions A, B, C and D. In which of these positions would the flux of the electric field through the hemisphere remain unchanged?
Ah, ignore my question. By framing it in my own words, I found my mistake.
Misinterpreted the question as NET electric flux.
I would be right in saying that the NET electric flux would remain unchanged if Q were placed at any of the four positions, yes?
But flux (not net flux) through the hemisphere would change were Q to be placed at C or D.
@sonicsid not sure how you're defining net electric flux, but if you're considering the hemisphere to be a closed surface (with a thickness), then the net flux through the hemisphere will always be zero because there's no charge inside the walls of the hemisphere.
The charge q is placed at the center of the hemisphere.
Oh so you mean like a solid hemisphere?
09:01
So by Gauss's Law, a flux of q/2epsilon would pass through the hemisphere, right?
Uh, I'm not sure. Concepts of Physics part 2, page 140, Q6
@sonicsid yes I understand what your setup is now, and yes a flux of q/2e would pass through
He only writes "hemisphere"
@sonicsid yes, I'd say so
Was my other reasoning correct?
The one about Q's position
and its relation with the net electric flux
Any charge not enclosed within the surface will have no effect on the flux
09:03
well the flux through the hemisphere does not change when you place any charge outside the hemisphere, by gauss's law
I'll leave satan to it :)
@satan29 do you mean to say NET flux? Because surely field lines of the charge's field would still pass through the hemisphere, even if it is placed outside it.
the field lines pass through the hemispgere, mind you
field lines enter the surface, but also leave the surface.
I've realised that I am unclear about Gauss's Law. I'll refer to my notes and confirm my understanding here afterwards. Thank you.
09:27
@JohnRennie Hi, sorry wasn't there in the morning
10:00
@caramalizedTomato Hi :-)
So I was asking why do we need the ohm's law here to explain the current?
Ohm's law always applies whenever we have a current flowing through a resistance.
In this case if we have some current I flowing round the loop, and the loop resistance is R, then there will be a voltage drop V = IR. OK so far?
And this voltage drop has to be equal to the EMF generated by the magnetic field in the loop, because that's what drives the current round the loop. Yes?
10:12
And that's what I did yesterday.
We end up with IR = dΦ/dt
Now, I'm having trouble with faraday's law, as it associates the change in flux with some EMF, now that EMF should've been generated due to some electric field which in turn has been generated by the change in magnetic field, so wouldn't it had been more fundamental to use the electric field than the EMF?
What I mean to say, in the formula why is there an EMF term at all?
The problem is that understanding what is really happening needs Maxwell's equations. These are simple than you think but they are well above JEE level.
In particular Maxwell's equations tell us that an electric field is related to a changing magnetic field by $$ \nabla \times \mathbf E = -\frac{d\mathbf B}{dt} $$
Do you know about the curl of a vector field?
Not mathematically, but I do have a basic idea, like it sort of tells us about circulation, or how much curved something is if I am right
Yes, the curl tells us about how the field lines form loops. If the field has a zero curl then the field lines do not form loops but instead they must begin or end on a charge.
But if the curl is non-zero that means the field lines can form loops.
And if a field line forms a loop we can move a charge around the field line and back to its original position. Yes?
10:27
And the field line tells us the direction the field points, so if we can move a charge around a loop and back to its starting point the charge will be moving in the direction of the field all the way round the loop, and therefore the field will be doing work on the charge all the way round the loop. OK so far?
And the work done on a charge q is just qV, so if we calculate the work as we move our charge q round the loop we have also calculated the potential difference round the loop. Yes?
What is V here?
V is the potential difference.
If we move a charge q across a potential difference V then the work done is qV. Yes?
Magnetic potential?
10:32
No, electrical potential.
@JohnRennie You were talking about electric potential all along?
Yes
Sorry, I didn't realise there was any confusion about that.
Magnetic potential doesn't exist because magnetic fields are non-conservative.
Well magnetic potential does kind of exist but it's complicated.
but then electric fields have a zero curl so wouldn't the work done be simply zero?
Remember the equation I posted earlier:
13 mins ago, by John Rennie
In particular Maxwell's equations tell us that an electric field is related to a changing magnetic field by $$ \nabla \times \mathbf E = -\frac{d\mathbf B}{dt} $$
The curl of an electric field is -dB/dt
So the curl of an electric field is not zero whenever we have a magnetic field that is changing with time.
Does that mean electric fields can form a loop?
10:36
Yes, and that's exactly what is happening in this case.
That's why current flows round the ring in a loop.
That's something I didn't know, wow
It's following the electric field lines that form loops.
This is the physical basis for Faraday's law.
A changing field creates electric field lines that form loops, so a current can flow in a loop.
@JohnRennie I guess the due to the epsilon of the conductor the field is quiet strong which enables the electrons to flow than in the empty space is that right?
It's simpler than that.
There are electrons in the wire of the loop (i.e. the conduction electrons) but there aren't any electrons floating around in empty space.
yes how can I overlook upon that
10:42
We get a current in the loop because the conduction electrons of the metal that the loop is made from can flow in response to the induced electric field.
@JohnRennie Yes
In empty space we still get field lines that form loops. It's just that there are no charges floating around in empty space to follow them.
Ok I'm clear with this, so you were saying about the work done on the charge will be qV
Yes.
And the work done can also be calculated from the electric field, because the force on the charge is F = qE and the work done if we move it a distance d𝓁 round the loop is dW = qEd𝓁.
10:47
So the total work will be ∫qEd𝓁, and we've already agreed this is also qV. And that tells us that the field and the potential round the loop are related by V = ∫Ed𝓁.
I've got a bit lost now, but I think we started by discussing whether the electric field or the potential was more fundamental.
And my point is that neither is more fundamental because they related by V = ∫Ed𝓁
They are different ways of describing the same thing.
Ok got that
Just one more thing
Yes ... ?
We say EMF, electromotive force but it is a scalar right for it's just another name for potential difference?
Yes, it is not an actual force.
10:53
Maybe there is some technical difference between EMF and potential that I've forgotten, but basically they are the same thing.
EMF is the potential difference across the terminals of the battery when it is not connected in any circuit, iirc
I just Googled it, and it looks the same as potential difference to me :-)
more precisely when there's no current flowing
In electromagnetism and electronics, electromotive force (emf, denoted E {\displaystyle {\mathcal {E}}} and measured in volts) is the electrical action produced by a non-electrical source. Devices (known as transducers) provide an emf by converting other forms of energy into electrical energy, such as batteries (which convert chemical energy) or generators (which convert mechanical energy). Sometimes an analogy to water pressure is used to describe electromotive force. (The word "force" in this case is not...
10:55
@JohnRennie While I know that "electric field" and "electric field intensity" are terms used interchangbly, would it not be a better idea to specify that we are talking about electric field INTENSITY here? Because while an electric field does have physical existence, electric field intensity and potential are both merely quantities associated with the field and neither of those two can be called more fundamental than the other, as you correctly said.
@JohnRennie Thank you so much sir =)
:-)
Don't be too worried if this all seems very confusing. A lot of what we talked about today is more advanced than the JEE.
@sonicsid I would say "electric field", and most physicists I know would say the same. The electric field is a function that gives the value of the electric vector at every point in space.
@JohnRennie I actually did understand, atleast I got the idea if not the math
I see. I should drop this matter since it is more philosophical (for lack of a better word) than practically useful.
@caramalizedTomato OK :-)
11:02
@JohnRennie But the JEE Advanced is rather advanced. If you look at 2020's question paper, there are some questions that were taken from research papers. There was also an interesting question about how Ohm's Law gets modified when the conductor is placed in an external magnetic field.
I doubt you need to understand Maxwell's equations though. Knowing Faraday's law and Ampere's law will answer most questions.
I agree.
In a way it's a shame, because if you go on to do physics at university and learn about Maxwell's equations a lot of stuff suddenly makes more sense.
@sonicsid Actually yes but the models for those question will be heavily contrained, hence can be solved with basic concepts.
@JohnRennie At the moment I can't agree more
It was like epiphany
11:08
@JohnRennie Well, things making more sense to us also acts as an incentive to pursue higher education from a good institution :D
stuff making more sense by studying at such a university, I mean
Out of A, B, C and D, where can another charge Q be placed such that the flux of the electric field through the hemisphere remains unchanged?
O is the center of the hemisphere here.
If you put a charge at A or B then every field line radiating out from the charge will pass though the hemisphere twice. Yes?
Sorry, I do not follow. Pass throguh it twice?
Right
Like this
The field line intersects the hemisphere in two places.
Ah, and in that case if once the dot product with the area vector element for each field line would be positive and there will be a corresponding negative one too, so flux will remain unchanged?
Correct :-)
11:16
Got it. Thank you!
12:03
@JohnRennie hi
@AshishAhuja Hi :-)
Is it quick? I need to go in five minutes.
I think it is, if it isn't I can come back later. I'll type it out fast
OK :-)
In a common emitter state of a transistor, it is clear that $I_E = I_C + I_B$. But surely since the dynamic resistances are different, $V_{CE}$ cannot be equal to $V_{CB} + V_{BE}$?
The voltages can be a bit weird in transistors. Vbe is always about 0.6V because it's just a forward biased diode. However Vce can be as low as 0.2V.
12:09
Vcb= Vc- Vb, Vbe= Vb-Ve, Vce= Vc-Ve, so i dont see why that equation wont hold?
The seems not to make sense since we end up with Vce less than Vbe, but it happens when a transistor is saturated.
@satan29 huh, I never thought about it this way.. you're essentially saying that $\int E \cdot dl = 0$ and hence $V_{CE} = V_{CB} + V_{BE}$?
I need to go. I won't be around this evening but I'll be back tomorrow as usual.
ofcourse that has to be the case, no?
12:13
yes now that you mentioned it it seems to be obvious, I agree. Although I'm not sure exactly what happens inside the transistor on a microscopic scale, it seems unlikely that there's a changing magnetic flux so $\int E \cdot dl$ must be zero.
Yes, I honestly dont see how a non conservative E can be stablished.
not sure what JR was trying to say, but yes I'm convinced now.
Also, btw can you explain how you had calculated (the method) angular momentum of the disk about the center of the semicircle the other day? I've never calculated the angular momentum in such a situation before.
$L_{0}= L_{cm} +m r_{0-> cm} \times (V_{cm}-V{0})$
Angular momentum about a point o.
oh
right yes
I see now, thanks.
so taking point o to be the center, we get $L0= Lcm+ m x \times ( \omega \times x)$
which works out to be $I_{com}\omega + mx^2 \omega= I_{o} \omega$, rather unsurprisingly.
12:21
hmm did you get the correct answer using this about the semicircle afterwards?
No :/
I'll go try it..
hang on ...was v supposed to be relative to the surface?
ah wait a min.
while calculating the final angular momentum about the center of the semicircle, we need to be careful.
so the point about which we are calculating is moving.
12:33
yes, so you need to take the relative velocity of the ball.
$L0= r \times m (v-v0)$
It should be v + v0? The disk and the ball will be moving in opposite directions.
I was writing a vector equation
ok sorry nvm
final L is mr(v+wR/2) then for the ball
12:35
yes
muR/2= - 3/4 MR^2 w + mR/2(v+wR/2) i believe?
can you give me a sec..? I need to go for a few mins.
sure
ok I'm back lemme see..
@satan29 yes that is exactly what I got as well but there's a problem I think
yes?
12:42
The energy conservation equation remains the same irrespective of whether you calculate L about the com or the semicircle center
yes that correct, and thats what I was thinking too... the L consv equation should finally match with that about the center..
so to get the same solution the L conservation equation should end up being the same as well, but it does not in this case.. plus we have three variables (u, v, omega) and 2 equations
@satan29 yes
I think our equation for L is correct, but we just have too many variables so this method does not work
no why? I think we can still solve it
we get v-u= R/2 w (3x-1) where x= M/m
..how? you have 3 variables with 2 equations
from energy cons. we can get v^2-u^2= f(R,x,w^2)
dividing, we get v+u = f(R,x,w)
v+u/v-u = f(x)
am i missing something?
@AshishAhuja v and w are the only variables
12:47
sorry it's hard to follow through on your exact calculations.. what is the final result you're getting?
@satan29 R
do you agree with my equation for v-u ?
give me a second I need to actually go through the calculation.
@satan29 I agree till here at least
from energy cons, v^2- u^2 = 3/4 x R^2 w^2
dividing, we get v+u= 3/2 wR (x/3x-1)
@satan29 agreed till here now
ohhhhh wait i messed up my energy conservation calculation
mv^2- mu^2= MR^2/2 w^2
so v^2-u^2=x/2 R^2 w^2
now dividing, v+u= Rw (x/3x-1)
so v+u/ v-u = 2x/ (3x-1)^2
sure, we can solve the equations, but its going to give the wrong answer :/
12:54
@satan29 isn't u the initial velocity, so it should be mu^2 - mv^2
oop
s
okay, add a - sign
v+u/v-u = -2x/(3x-1)^2 then, we can get v in terms of u easily..but its wrong.
actualy if you think about it, how the hell will you get a square root?
oh actually wait nvm,
I got a square root when doing the calculation about COM, so the answer can't be wrong.
yeah yeah the angular momentum consv equation in the COM frame will not have v-u term
@satan29 there should be an x in the numerator here?
x/ 3x-1
13:01
ok yes my bad
I cant find a flaw in this approach though.... L should be conserved about the center of the SC too
the calculation is surely correct, so either L is not conserved or we are calculating it wrong about the center of the semicircle..
Although the center of the SC is an accerating frame, the pseudo force at evvery instant passes through the point, so it wont produce torque at any instant
hang on though
W is changing through the course of the mmotion, so the table has alpha as well
so the center of the SC is accelerating tangentially as well.
the corresponding pseudo force will produce torque, that will change the angular momentum by $\int \tau dt= k \int \alpha dt= k \Delta \omega= k \omega_{f}$
ok wtf is going on... this goes straight over my head but does it work?
'm a bit busy right now so I have to go, but this might be it.
13:11
ok. Even I'm going for dinner now, please do let me know if it works.
@AshishAhuja when we use accelerating frames for analysis (like the center of the semicircle), we must account for Pseudo forces and its effects.
and when we say L "about" a point, we actually mean L in frame of that point
so when analysing L from an accelerating frame, we must be wary of torques that can be produced by pseudo forces.
13:40
@satan29 yes I understand this. $k$ is the moment of inertia about that point?
 
2 hours later…
16:05
Does anyone here know of some reliable source for HC Verma solutions?
of the subjective problems at least
16:44
there is a soltn manual

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