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04:47
Good morning sir :-) @JohnRennie
Morning JR SIR
Good morning Yuvraj :-) @yuvrajsingh
@yuvrajsingh @user8718165 morning :-)
@JohnRennie sir are you drinking coffee?
I'm about to make my first coffee of the morning,but if you want to ask something go ahead.
04:51
@JohnRennie sir, yesterday's question. But no, you first have your coffee... :-)
05:04
20 hours ago, by user8718165
@JohnRennie its written that the barrier voltage can't be measured because of unavailability of mobile charges...so how do the scientists measure the potential barrier of silicon and germanium?
@user8718165 that question?
@JohnRennie yeah sir
What do you mean by the barrier voltage? The voltage developed across a PN junction?
@JohnRennie yeah sir
That's easy. You just increase the voltage until the diode starts conducting and you measure what voltage is needed.
Are you familiar with the IV curves for forward biased diodes?
@JohnRennie yeah sir...its written...but its by trial....is there no way of confirming :-)
@JohnRennie no sir...not yet...by today...
@JohnRennie yeah sir...got it...
This is a typical IV curve for a diode. This is just one of many you'll find on the Internet.
@JohnRennie okay
A voltage $V_d$ develops across the junction due to the formation of a depletion layer, so you need to apply a voltage equal to or greater than $V_d$ to get any current to flow across the junction.
@JohnRennie sir, actually the current increases before threshold v :-/
05:11
This is the threshold voltage shown on the graph.
@user8718165 that's because electrons can tunnel across the barrier. The tunnelling probability increases as the barrier width decreases so we get a gradual increase in current as the barrier thins, rather than a sharp increase in current.
@JohnRennie thanks sir
You can calculate the junction voltage by analysing the IV curve in detail, but basically it's the same as the threshold voltage.
The threshold voltage is an approximation to the junction voltage. If we wanted to measure it precisely we'd do a more accurate calculation. You'd use a model for the V curve in which the junction voltage was a parameter, then fit that model to the experimental data.
Although I confess I don't know exactly how that's done. I'm sure it's only a Google away though.
@JohnRennie hi.
@Nobodyrecognizeable hi
@JohnRennie ^^
05:26
Suppose the apogee of the satellite is at a distance $d$. You know that energy is conserved,so the total energy (PE + KE) of the satellite is constant. You can calculate the initial KE and PE because you're given the initial distance and velocity. OK so far?
@JohnRennie OK.
And you can calculate the PE at the apogee because it is just $U = -GMm/d$. So if you can find the KE at the apogee you can calculate $d$. Yes?
@JohnRennie yes.
And the way you calculate $d$ is to use conservation of angular momentum. At launch the velocity is tangent to the radius vector so the angular momentum is just $L = v_i^2/R$ where $v_i$ is the initial velocity.
At apogee the velocity is again normal to the radius vector $d$ so again $L=v_a^2/d$ where $v_a$ is the apogee velocity.
@JohnRennie OK.
05:33
So conservation of energy gives you one equation in $d$ and $v_a$, and conservation of angular momentum gives you a second equation in $d$and $v_a$. So you have two equations in two variables. Solve these to get $d$ and $v_a$.
What you are doing here is an application of the vis-viva equation i.e. using conservation of energy and angular momentum:
In astrodynamics, the vis-viva equation, also referred to as orbital-energy-invariance law, is one of the equations that model the motion of orbiting bodies. It is the direct result of the principle of conservation of mechanical energy which applies when the only force acting on an object is its own weight. Vis viva (Latin for "living force") is a term from the history of mechanics, and it survives in this sole context. It represents the principle that the difference between the total work of the accelerating forces of a system and that of the retarding forces is equal to one half the vis viva...
@JohnRennie I get b.
@JohnRennie got it now sir :-) Thank you very much for helping sir
@Nobodyrecognizeable does it match the answer key?
@JohnRennie yes.
@Nobodyrecognizeable BOOM! :-)
It was easier than you thought :-)
05:41
@JohnRennie from vis viva equation we are finding a right?
@JohnRennie certainly.
The vis-viva equation wouldn't answer your question. I mention it because it is derived using exactly the method you just used to answer the question.
@JohnRennie aren't we finding a?
No, because $a$ is the semimajor axis not the apogee distance.
If $d_a$ and $d_p$ are the apogee and perigee distances then $2a = d_a+ d_p$
@JohnRennie I get a ad R and d_a =2r so the problem is unrealistic.
You can calculate the perigee distance in exactly the same way you just calculated the apogee distance, though in this case the perigee distance would turn out to be below the surface of the Earth.
Oh,no wait, the perigee distance would just be $R$.
So you'd get $a = 1.5R$
No, sorry, wrong again.
05:49
@JohnRennie don't we take the sun stationary? So a=2r
The answer is the distance above the earth not the distance from the centre of the Earth. The apogee distance from the centre of the earth is $d_a = 3R$.
@JohnRennie won't that mean a circular orbit?
And the perigee distance is just $R$ so the distance between the apogee and perigee points is $d_a + d_p = 4R$. Yes?
@JohnRennie so indeed from surface of earth its 2r.
Ya I get $d_a=3r $ and $d_p=r$ when you measure from the centre of earth. Have to subtract r if you wanna get from surface.
@JohnRennie ^^
In the vis-viva equation the distance $r$ is the distance from the centre of the Earth.
You almost never use the distance from the surface in orbital mechanics.
05:55
@JohnRennie it's all clear now. Boom!
@JohnRennie Thanks for the help. Have a nice day. Bye
Bye :-)
 
2 hours later…
08:00
@JohnRennie hi
@yuvrajsingh hi
I have a question on QM should I ask it here or in h bar @JohnRennie
h bar, unless it's a JEE question
08:39
hello sir @JohnRennie
@user8718165 hi :-)
@JohnRennie In an n type doped, when electrons leave the donor level for the conduction band, holes are made in donor level. Do those holes affect conductivity sir?
No, because the donor states don't form a band. The density of the donor states is very small compared to the silicon bulk, so they can't link up to form a band. Instead they form separate localised states where the holes are trapped and can't move.
The same applies to P doping. The electrons excited into the states just above the valence band are also trapped and can't move. That's why in a P type semiconductor only the holes conduct.
@JohnRennie sir why can't those holes(or electrons in p type) move around sir? why are they trapped?
@user8718165 consider a gas - like air. It doesn't conduct electricity because the electrons are bound to the air molecules and can't move.
08:47
@JohnRennie okay sir
Obviously the dopant molecules aren't a gas, but they resemble a gas in that they are widely separated and can't interact with each other.
@JohnRennie got it sir
@JohnRennie thank you very much sir
So as in a gas the electron or hole remains bound to the dopant atom and can't move away.
@JohnRennie thank you so much for helping sir
You're welcome :-)
08:48
@JohnRennie yeah
09:03
@JohnRennie sir will you please come here in the evening (afternoon)?
I will ask you some program questions if you're not tired :)
@user8718165 I'll almost certainly be around this afternoon. From about 16:00 UK time for a couple of hours.
@JohnRennie yeah! okay sir :-)
 
3 hours later…
12:06
@JohnRennie sir hi
Whenever you free please ping I have very small question. @JohnRennie
 
2 hours later…
14:26
@JohnRennie Hello sir !
@Jasmine hi :-)
@JohnRennie hello
@Aladdin hi :-)
Are u freeish
I'm jut finishing lunch. Give me five minutes. I'll ping you when I' ready.
14:31
Sure
@Jasmine I'm not 100% sure what the question is asking, but I wonder if it's a conservation of angular momentum problem?
@JohnRennie Sir you had answered a similar question before can you please answer this one also. physics.stackexchange.com/questions/507422/…
@Jasmine Suppose the angular velocity of the disk after the string has become taut is $\omega$, then the velocity of the block is $v = R\omega$ so the angular momentum of the block is $L = mvR = mR^2\omega$.
@JohnRennie yes
14:39
The AM of the disk is $L = I\omega = \tfrac12MR^2\omega$, and because AM is conserved these two have to add up to the original AM of the disk $\tfrac12MR^2\omega_0$.
That allows you to calculate $\omega$.
@JohnRennie Ok
@Aladdin CodeClub?
I complicated it too much
@Jasmine :-)
14:52
@JohnRennie I thought finding ${\alpha}$ first then $w^2=w_0^2+2{\alpha}$ x
@Jasmine the problem is that question doesn't make clear what the angular acceleration is.
With a perfectly rigid string the acceleration would be infinite i.e. the mass would go from stationary to final velocity instantly.
So I don't think there's a useful way to do this by considering the acceleration.
@JohnRennie Okay got it :-)
:52065165 well in a real experiment it would, because any real string is stretchy.
15:15
@JohnRennie sir I have a question on fermi level variation in doped sc's with temp...
@user8718165 yes ... ?
@JohnRennie first is from book and second is from a source on the web....which one is correct sir?
It's not an area I know a lot about.
In the first image the curve for the higher dopant concentration does seem to have a maximum i.e. the Fermi level initially goes up then falls again with temperature.
And that's what the second image shows, so both could be correct. It just depends on the dopant concentration.
@JohnRennie sir did you see by drawing a st. line? BTW its very small bump as compared to the 2nd one...
You need to find out why the Fermi level should initially increase as we go from absolute zero. I have to admit it's not obvious tome ...
15:30
@JohnRennie well, thank you very much sir. Now you can take rest :-)
@JohnRennie sir hi
@yuvrajsingh hi
Actuality sir today I was thinking about time, what the time is, is it a material which is measurable can you describe what actually a time is @JohnRennie
@yuvrajsingh have a look at:
76
Q: What is time, does it flow, and if so what defines its direction?

John RennieThis is an attempt to gather together the various questions about time that have been asked on this site and provide a single set of hopefully authoritative answers. Specifically we attempt to address issues such as: What do physicists mean by time? How does time flow? Why is there an arrow of ...

 
1 hour later…
16:40
Good night sir :-) @JohnRennie
@user8718165 Bye :-)

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