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02:00 - 10:0010:00 - 18:00

02:24
@GaurangTandon take a look please
@AnybodyElse any help is greatly appreciated
02:41
yep in 10mins
02:55
woah
that's interesting
03:05
i've no clue how to solve that :(
@GaurangTandon just help me understand the solution then
I can't even get that gimme a sec
@GaurangTandon this is the solution
03:21
Guys, im looking to derive the Lagrangian for the external post newtonian gravitational field.... The definition the give is as follows: L = 1 - d\tau/dt.
Can anyone explain that to me in laymans terms?
@AvnishKabaj ok lemme read
@AvnishKabaj what is the "d" in $\tau \propto mgd$ (first equation)? what is "d" supposed to indicate?
@GaurangTandon I have no idea I though you might know
@Tanuj @Abcd take a look at this question
1 hour ago, by Avnish Kabaj
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2 hours later…
05:43
@JohnRennie Good morning :)
@AvnishKabaj Is the answer to this 'D' ?
@Tanuj no it's a
Hmm , I have no idea about it then.
ask JR
05:58
@JohnRennie if you're free could you help me out with this
4 hours ago, by Avnish Kabaj
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@AvnishKabaj actually , my answer is coming out to be 1/4 , no idea how it could be 1/2
@Tanuj it could be the key is wrong
How did you do it
@AvnishKabaj what book is this ?
@Tanuj fiitjee GMP
hmm , it can't be wrong then :p
06:06
@AvnishKabaj I reckon the answer is 1/2. Is that correct?
@JohnRennie yes it's correct; could you please explain How?
Yup , please explain.
I'll draw a quick diagram ...
@JohnRennie yes
06:12
oh oh I get where you're going
nice!
The first thing to note is that the square rotating about its centre is equivalent to four small squares rotating about a corner.
I see what you did there
ah yes i was looking everywhere for those
the cubes
@diobuceulb those are not cubes , but depends upon your imagination.
So the question is really if take a square rotating about a corner and double its size then how does that change the time it takes to stop. OK so far?
06:13
good observation
@JohnRennie yes
@AvnishKabaj are you OK with the argument so far?
@JohnRennie shouldn't the size be quadrupled and length pf side doubled ?
@Tanuj the word size normally means the linear dimensions e.g. the length or the width. So the size doubles and the area quadruples.
@JohnRennie cool :)
06:19
@AvnishKabaj: hello? You there?
Oh well, I'll give a quick summary anyway
The initial angular momentum is $I\omega$, so the change of momentum when the square comes to a stop is also $I\omega$, and change of momentum is equal to torque times time i.e. the angular impulse.
So we have: $$ I\omega = T t $$ or rearranging: $$ t = \frac{I}{T}\omega $$
So the question is how does $I/T$ change when you double the size.
The moment of inertia scales like $mr^2$ and the mass scaes like $r^2$ so the moment of inertia scales like $r^4$.
@JohnRennie T (Torque) is due to friction , right ?
The torque is force times distance, and the frictional force is $\mu m$ so the torque scales like $mr$ i.e. it scales like $r^3$.
So the ratio $I/T$ scales like $r^4/r^3 = r$
@JohnRennie doubt .
I solved kinda the same , but didn't take into account , the doubling of size ,
My question is , why will the torque be different for the two cases ?
06:33
The frictional force depend only on the mass because it is $\mu mg$. Yes?
@JohnRennie yes
And the torque is force times distance from the pivot point, so if we increase this distance we increase the torque. Yes?
yes
That's why the torque scales like $r^3$
@JohnRennie Okay , but if I just do something like , $\dfrac{t_{1}}{t_{2}}=\dfrac{T_{2}\cdot I_{1}}{T_{1}\cdot I_{2}}$
And put $I_{1}=\dfrac{ml^2}{6}$ and $I_{2}=\dfrac{2ml^2}{3}$
Can I know how would $T_{2}$ and $T_{1}$ compare ?
06:46
The expression for the torque will be very complicated. You'd have to divide up the square into elements, calculate the torque for each element and integrate them up to get the total torque. Offhand I don't know what the answer is.
But ...
The geometry isn't changing. We are only scaling the whole square up by a factr of two.
Yea ,
So we don't need to know the exact equation for the torque. We only need to know how it scales with the size.
@JohnRennie How are we going to calculate torque ?
i.e. we don't need to know $T_1$ or $T_2$. We only need to know the ratio $T_2/T_1$.
I mean $\mu mg$ is the force , but what distance has to be taken ?
06:49
@Tanuj We only need to know the ratio $T_2/T_1$
@JohnRennie I get it , but if in a different question , let's say I'm asked to evaluate the torque for disc 1 and disc 2 . How would that be done ?
Take an element at $(x,y)$ from the corner. The mass is $\rho dx dy$ where $\rho$ is the area density so the friction is $\rho \mu g dx dy$.
The distance is $r = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$ so the torque is $$ dT = \rho \mu g \sqrt{x^2 + y^2} dx dy $$
okay
Now just integrate to get the total torque
How do you integrate this ? It has both dx and dy
06:55
It's just a double integral
@JohnRennie I'm so sorry I got caught up with something
Okay , so it is out of my scope
First take $y$ constant and integrate $dx$. Then do a second integral $dy$.
taking x constant ?
@JohnRennie Really?
06:56
and then adding both ?
Is it Physically Rigorous??
@Tanuj once you've done the $dx$ integral that removes all dependence on $x$. The integral is then just a function of $y$.
@JohnRennie I didn't get anything actually , this is my first encounter with a 'double integral'. So , first , taking y as a constant , I integrate with respect to x , what will happen to dy ?
@MadhuchhandaMandal yes it's rigorous. I skipped some steps to keep the explanation simple, but you can easily see it's rigorous.
@MadhuchhandaMandal as I was explaining to Tanuj we can calculate the torque by splitting the square up into infinitesimal elements $dxdy$ and calculating the toque due to each element. If we keep the geometry constant and just double the size then we quadruple the mass of each element and double its distance.
@JohnRennie thanks a lot
07:02
@JohnRennie How are being sure Intuitionally(ofcourse without deriving it) that Torque is dependent on r to the First power?
For example, it could depend on Ln(r) as well
@JohnRennie nvm , I don't think I' have to do the double integral for my exam.
@MadhuchhandaMandal torque is force times distance
@JohnRennie for a point mass
Here it's a distribution of mass
@JohnRennie Thanks a lot ! :)
With varrying distance
Can we be sure Intuitionally?
07:04
Any distribution of mass $m$ can be thought of as being built up from small masses $dm$
@JohnRennie I have a question to ask.
The torques just add, so $$ T_\text{total} = \sum_i dT_i = \sum_i \mu g \, dm \, r_i $$
And if we double the size, while not changing the overall shape, then each $r_i$ in our sum is doubled.
Ofcourse, Now r is varrying and so is dm
Yes, each $dm$ is quadrupled.
@JohnRennie One of the following wavelenghts is absent and the rest are present in the X-rays coming from a Coolidge tube. Which one is the absent wavelength ?
07:07
@MadhuchhandaMandal So every term in our sum is increased by a factor of $2^3$
OPTIONS: a) 25 pm b)50 pm c) 75 pm d) 100 pm
@JohnRennie ofcourse, so we can definitely argue that if for a small square Torque is F(small dimension, Mass ), then for a large square it must be F(Large dimension, Mass)
But , is it evident Intuitionally that F(dimension,Mass) is proportional to dimension to the first power?
@MadhuchhandaMandal Force or torque?
07:10
F is the torque function
$F$ is so widely used for linear force that I recommend using a different symbol for torque. Both $T$ and $\tau$ are widely used to represent torque.
I used F to represent F(x,y).. :-P
I strongly recommend adhering closely to the usual conventions when doing calculations as it reduces the scope for mistakes.
Okay .. so T(x,y)
Anyhow, look back at my sum for calculating the torque of a distributed mass. From that it should be immediately obvious that torque scales linearly with dimension.
07:16
Well, multiplying each term of the summation by a Scalar
Right?
And using the bijection argument
bijection argument ?
That is , Mapping each point of the original figure to a point in the New scaled figure
And as every point of the new figure can be traced back to a point of the original figure
That is as Inverse of the mapping exists
So the mapping must be a bijection
And thus Cardinality of the domain and Codomain of the mapping must be same
Which is indeed true
Because as we are considering Point mass
The Cardinality is infinite in both the case
(Original body and scaled body)
The sum is a finite sum of discrete elements, so we don't need to worry about cardinalities or rigorous handling of infinitesimals.
And I'm being a typical physicist in assuming that we can move to the infinitesimal limit and change the sum to an integral :-)
Shrug :-)
@Tanuj I don't understand the question. An X-ray tube normally produces $K_\alpha$, $K_\beta$, etc, but there is no simple relation between the wavelengths.
hmm yea
@JohnRennie if I was somehow able to calculate the minimum wavelength , then I could get the answer , but then the applied voltage is not given
@Tanuj I guess they must mean the shortest wavelength is absent because I can't see any argument for the presence or absence of other wavelengths.
why would that be ? ( shortest wavelength absent)
Because the shortest wavelength has the highest energy, and would be missing if the accelerating voltage was too low.
07:33
@JohnRennie okay.
@JohnRennie Hey !! I found a way to bypass the double integral !!!
@MadhuchhandaMandal Yes?
@MadhuchhandaMandal It'd be interesting to know.
@MadhuchhandaMandal So finally you get torque proportional to distance of center of mass from the axis of rotation ?
07:39
I think it can be used to calculate individual Torques... (But it will be very inefficient to calculate the ratio as it is unnecessary . Cause the method @JohnRennie pointed out is much easier)
@MadhuchhandaMandal wouldn't the torque be 0 in the first case according to your expression ?
@Tanuj in that case the Splitting of OP is not valid
I mean OC is null vector
I'm assuming they are non coincidental
I don't know how that can be true , but okay
Anyway, i may have messed up something too.. i need to double check it
How did you write the torque due to friction ?
07:44
Which one?
Both
Proportional to Mass × daxiscom
So Ma/√2 in second case
In first case , split the square into four pieces
hmm , I really don't get how you got that - T=Mass × daxiscom
I posted the derivation 🤔🤔
@MadhuchhandaMandal I know but , I didn't get it.
07:48
Oh.. Which area?
most part , one question though.
Is it going to be always true ?
T=Mass × daxiscom
I need to recheck it
I can't tell anything for sure..until I double check the derivation
It might be erroneous
Well I think it will be
I complicated the derivation for no reason
Wait lemme put it simply
cool
It won't be .. sorry
I checked the derivation
Sum(|Vector|) not equal to |Sum(Vector)| I made that stupid mistake
Stupid me
😢
Ah
08:11
But wait.. something cool is waiting
Lemme cook
Alright . :)
08:31
orning
morning
suppose i have a metal shell with negative charge
what happens if i put a non conducting sphere inside it with oposite charge?
suppose the charge in the non conducting sphere is uniform
08:46
It stays there?
09:00
@ManolisLyviakis if you put it at the centre, nothing should happen; everyone stays where they were
yeap
just figured it out
also what do we mean the Electric field inside a conductor is zero
do we mean
inside inside
or on the surface of the conductor
suppose i ahve a metal shell
that has 2 radius
one is the radius of the emptyness inside
what i mean is
even if i put a charge on the inside of the metal shell
its electric field will be zero?
09:55
im consufed
suppose i have a ballon with uniform charge in the surface
and that baloon is getting bigger
the change inside stas zero
the charge outside far away
is $kQ/r^2$
but what is the change on the surface
i dont get the question
isnt infinte on the surface
?
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