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4:14 AM
@JohnRennie good morning. Are you free
 
@Scáthach morning :-)
Yes I'm free.
 
@JohnRennie An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to function. If it is connected to 220 V(rms) , 50 hz Ac supply,, the series inductor needed to work for it is close to
 
@Scáthach this is like that resistor and inductor in series question that you did yesterday
The arc lamp needs a current of 10A, so with a 220V supply you can work out what impedance is needed to get a current of 10A. Yes?
 
Yes
 
And you know the arc lamp has a resistance of 8 ohms because it draws 10A from an 80V supply.
And for a resistor and inductor in series $Z^2 = R^2 + L^2$
 
4:27 AM
@JohnRennie got it
@JohnRennie dc equivalent is ac rms
 
Yes
 
I get confused in this statement sometimes
 
The AC rms voltage and/or current is produces the same power as the DC equivalent.
 
So in this question why you took irms to be 10 then
 
So if you have some resistor R and you're calculating the power dissipated $I^2R$ then for example 10A DC and 10A rms AC dissipate the same power.
@Scáthach yes
In most cases you can just treat DC and AC rms as equivalent.
 
4:31 AM
@JohnRennie okay. Got it
 
ayc
4:48 AM
@JohnRennie Reagrding Light:Is maxwell's theory our current level of understanding of light ? Do we've much more in detail concepts ?
and ofcourse Max planck theory is there...anymore than those?.
 
@ayc light is ultimately described by quantum electrodynamics, which is a quantum field theory. Maxwell's equations emerge as the classical limit of quantum electrodynamics.
 
ayc
@JohnRennie Most theories have a basic platfrom upon which it is built for ex: special relativity is built upon two postulates....Do we have any such postulates in QED .or its just mathematics?
 
In classical electrodynamics (i.e. Maxwell's equations) there is a field called the electromagnetic four-potential. This isn't directly observable, but from it we can obtain the electric and magnetic fields.
What quantum field theory says is that this field should be quantised i.e. it should have states like the quantum states of a particle. So we write the EM four-potential as a sum of these states. The states are called Fock states.
The result is a theory that explains things classical EM cannot. For example it explains how an electron-positron pair can be created from a photon. This is an easy thing to observe experimentally, but Maxwell's equations cannot predict or explain it.
Se QED is actually well motivated. It's certainly not just a mathematician's fantasy. But it is much, much more complicated than regular quantum mechanics like you would learn in the first year if an undergrad physics degree.
 
@JohnRennie hi
 
@Scáthach hi
 
5:01 AM
@JohnRennie how to calculate time period lost by pendulum due to change in lebgth
 
@Scáthach the pendulum period is $T = 2\pi\sqrt{L/g}$, so if you change $L$ the period changes.
 
ayc
@JohnRennie I don't understand any of the terms,but I get the story..all theories develop in a certain way:First we give a theory and later we find that its not complete, then we add some complicated mathematics and then finish it i.e we prove that our intial theory is just a special case of our current,modernized,theory !..right?
 
@ayc basically yes. All physical theories are approximations that work fine within a limited region. Outside that region we need to find a more complicated theory that includes the original theory as a subset.
e.g. Newton's mechanics works fine for speeds much less than $c$. At high speeds we need special relativity, which has Newtonian mechanics as a low speed subset.
Then for high masses we need general relativity, which has special relativity as a low mass subset.
 
5:40 AM
@JohnRennie hi
 
@Scáthach hi
 
@JohnRennie hi
I know the charge present between A snd B
But still what to do to get electric field zero between them
 
Use Gauss' law
Consider a sphere with some radius $r$ between $a$ and $b$ i.e. $a \le r \le b$
 
Yes
 
Calculate the charge inside the sphere. This will be the charge at the centre plus the charge in the region between $a$ and $r$. The flux through the sphere is the field times the surfce area i.e. $E 4\pi r^2$ and this is equal to $Q/\epsilon$.
 
5:50 AM
Ok
 
@JohnRennie Hi, good morning!
 
@Dante morning :-)
 
@JohnRennie okay but still it's not giving anything to me. We can proceed after dante
 
@Scáthach I'll wait.
I thought you were done.
 
@Dante okay. Will just take 2 minutes i guess
 
5:55 AM
The volume between $r$ and $a$ is:
$$ V = \tfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3 - \tfrac{4}{3}\pi a^3 $$
The charge is $\rho V$ so it is:
 
Yes
 
$$ Q = \frac{A}{r} \left ( \tfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3 - \tfrac{4}{3}\pi a^3 \right) + Q_0 $$
Where $Q_0$ is the charge at the centre.
 
Yes
 
And from Gauss' law $Q = E 4\pi r^2 \epsilon$ so:
$$ E = \frac{A}{r} \frac{1}{4\pi r^2 \epsilon} \left ( \tfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3 - \tfrac{4}{3}\pi a^3 \right) + \frac{Q_0}{4\pi r^2 \epsilon} $$
 
OK
@Dante you can ask
 
6:06 AM
@JohnRennie Is restriction motion of particles always associated with decrease in entropy?
 
@Dante I'm not sure what that means. Can you give an example?
 
ayc
@JohnRennie Should the mass of a blackhole be quite big for us to make an experimental observation of hawkings radiation.....i.e what are the conditions at which we can make an observation of H.R?
 
I wanted to ask, why does freezing of water have positive $\delta S$ at $-1^{\circ} C$
 
@Dante When water freezes heat is transferred from the water to the environment so the entropy of the water decreases while the entropy of the environment increases. The total entropy change is the sum of the water decrease and the environment increase. Yes?
 
yes
 
6:13 AM
@Dante If the freezing is a reversible process then we know the total entropy change is zero i.e. the decrease in the entropy of the water is equal to the increase in entropy of the environment. Yes?
 
Yes
 
@Dante So can you see where I'm going with this?
 
Yep, entropy of the surroundings increase more than magnitude of decrease in entropy of water while freezing, right?
at -1
Heat is flowing from hotter body to colder body.
which is supposed to be spontaneous.
Am I getting it right?
 
Yes. Freezing of water at -1°C is not a reversible process because the water is supercooled and therefore not in equilibrium.
And in any irreversible process the total entropy increases.
 
Ok, I get it thanks, Why is entropy called 'unavailable energy' of the system?
 
6:23 AM
The work done in an irreversible process is always less than the work done in a reversible process. The decrease in work is associated with an increase in entropy.
That's why an entropy increase is associated with a decrease in the work that can be done.
 
Oh....k.
Irreversible process happens on it's own right?
Why do we have to do work there? Any example?
 
For example in a car engine the pistons are driven by the expansion of the gas in the cylinders, and the work done in that expansion makes the car go. The more nearly the expansion is reversible the more work will be done and the better the fuel economy will be.
 
Oh, I see.
 
ayc
6:43 AM
@JohnRennie My question now......The one I already asked!
 
@ayc the Hawking temperature of all macroscopic black holes is so low we could never observe it. We'd need to make a tiny black hole, and that's far beyond our current technology.
You can Google the Hawking temperature. I can't remember the equation offhand, but it's quite simple.
 
ayc
@JohnRennie Is it correct to say that we've discovered it in some other world by using Many-worlds interpretaion of Q.mech?
 
@JohnRennie Hi
 
ayc
@JohnRennie Is my interpretation of the interpretation wrong?
 
Are you free rn? @JohnRennie
 
6:53 AM
@YUSUFHASAN hi Yusuf, yes I'm free.
 
@ayc it's hard to say anything concrete about quantum theory interpretations. To be hnest I get impatient with the subject.
 
@JohnRennie I know this is about proportionality of self-inductance..I just don't get the factors for it
 
@YUSUFHASAN I'll just be a few minutes. Back real soon.
 
Kay..I'll be waiting here
 
ayc
6:56 AM
ohk!
 
@YUSUFHASAN I'm not sure to be honest. Self inductance is proportional to the area isn't it?
 
@JohnRennie Yep..That's what...I have only derived it for 2 coaxial coils in my study on inductance..and there it is proportional to length, square of number of turns per unit length and area..Is that stuff valid here as well?
 
The self inductance is proportional to the flux through the coil so you'd need to work out how the flux depends on the dimensions of the coil.
But I've never calculated that for a triangular coil.
 
Okay...and would area come into consideration for this coil?
 
7:09 AM
This is the soln given..@JohnRennie ^^
@JohnRennie That pdf seems to have a very complex relation for this..But the solution seems too simple and it neglects area..What am I missing?
 
@YUSUFHASAN to be honest I have no idea. I'd have to Google for the equation to get the inductance of a triangular coil.
 
@JohnRennie Okay..So can we say that the solution provided above ^^ is wrong?
 
@YUSUFHASAN I don't know.
 
Okay...Cuz I also didn't understand much from the pdf you linked above.. :(
 
But it's still more complicated than the answer implies.
 
7:14 AM
Okay..Well this was a JEE mains question..and it wasn't striked off as bonus or something...so I thought...But still, thanks! @JohnRennie
 
@JohnRennie hi
 
@Scáthach hi
 
@YUSUFHASAN I never understood mutual induction clearly ;_;
Will have to go through cengage once.
 
@JohnRennie hi
I tried to go with virial theorem
That gave me: K. E= -4P E
So total energy is -3P. E
That would indicate towards (c) .. But it's not correct
 
@Scáthach The virial theorem tells us that if the potential is $V(r) \propto r^n$ then $2T = nV$. Yes?
 
7:24 AM
Oops. Yes
 
Can you take it from here?
 
@JohnRennie but this gives us To=-2V right
 
$n = -2$ so we get $2T = -2V$
 
Got it
Zero
 
Yes!
Or you could do it the hard way i.e. differentiate $V$ to get the force and use that to calculate the orbital velocity.
 
7:28 AM
Yes
 
I need to work now for about 45 minutes. Back later.
 
7:55 AM
Hello I had a question
Suppose we had a mass at point P that was being accelerated towards the right due to the positive charge on ring 1 and a negative charge on ring 2. At the center of ring 2, how would you determine the speed of the mass?
I know it involves taking energy conservation (KEi + Ui = KEf + Uf) but I'm confused on what r distance to use for the potential energy formula. Is it the distance from the mass to the center of mass of each respective ring or the distance to the edge? If so, why?
 
8:35 AM
@krauser126 it's simpler than you think. Potential energies simply add, so take the potential energy due to the left ring at a distance $x$ and the potential energy due to the right ring at a distance $3R-x$ and just add them together to get the total PE.
Then the change between the PE of the start point and the end point gives you the change in the kinetic energy.
 
9:08 AM
@JohnRennie hi
 
@Dante hi
 
Is total entropy change for a reversible iso-thermal process always zero?
That's what my textbook says.
 
The total energy change for any reversible process is always zero.
 
I didn't get you..
Could you explain please?
 
9:24 AM
For a reversible process the entropy change for any component is give by $dS = dq/T$.
In a reversible process the temperatures of all parts of the total system are the same because by definition in a reversible process the whole system is in equilibrium.
And when heat flows between any two parts of the system, $a$ and $b$, $dq_a = -dq_b$ because heat is a conserved quantity.
That means $dS_a = -dS_b$, so the total entropy change is necessarily zero.
 
Okay, then why do we have a formula for entropy change of real gas in isothermal process? $\delta S=nR\ln(\dfrac{V_2}{V_1})$. Does this represent change in entropy of the gas only and not the total change?
 
> Does this represent change in entropy of the gas only and not the total change?
Exactly.
 
Ah, ok.
 
10:01 AM
@JohnRennie Hi
 
@Dante hi
 
My textbook says zener breakdown is reversible while avalanche breakdown is irreversible. What does it mean?
 
That's not strictly true because some zener diodes use avalanche breakdown.
Suppose you take a regular diode and apply an increasingly large reverse voltage to it.
At some point an avalanche breakdown starts, and in a regular diode that means the resistance of the diode falls to almost zero. The result is a very large current that dissipates so much power in the diode that it burns out.
So it's not the breakdown mechanism that causes the damage, it's the large current you get when the breakdown starts. If you used a power supply with a high internal resistance to limit the current then the diode wouldn't be damaged.
@Dante OK so far?
 
Yeah
 
Some zener diodes work by a quantum tunnelling method and some work by avalanche breakdown. It depends on the design of the diode.
Where zener diodes use an avalanche breakdown they are designed to beak down in a more controlled way so you don't get the massive currents and resulting heating and damage.
 
10:09 AM
Quantum tunneling? I heard that's something like teleportation of sub-atomic particles.
@JohnRennie Oh, I see. Understood, thanks
 
@Dante the electrons can tunnel through the depletion layer.
 
Oh,
 
A Zener diode is a type of diode that allows current to flow not only from its anode to its cathode, but also in the reverse direction, when the Zener voltage is reached. Zener diodes have a highly doped p-n junction. Normal diodes break down with a reverse voltage, but the voltage and sharpness of the knee are not as well defined as for a Zener diode. Normal diodes are not designed to operate in the breakdown region, whereas Zener diodes operate reliably in this region. The device was named after Clarence Melvin Zener, who discovered the Zener effect. Zener reverse breakdown is due to electron...
> The device was named after Clarence Melvin Zener, who discovered the Zener effect. Zener reverse breakdown is due to electron quantum tunnelling caused by a high-strength electric field. However, many diodes described as "Zener" diodes rely instead on avalanche breakdown. Both breakdown types are used in Zener diodes with the Zener effect predominating under 5.6 V and avalanche breakdown above.
 
10:44 AM
@JohnRennie Hi
 
@Dante hi
 
 
@Dante The loop is going to create a dipole normal to the page. Yes?
 
Yes.
 
And the field due to the wire is also going to be everwhere normal to the page.
 
10:49 AM
Yes
 
And the force on a dipole aligned with a field is ... ?
 
Oh, wait.
I have was using torque formula :facepalm:
Force should be mdB/dr right?
 
There are two possible forces on a dipole in a field. One is the torque, so you were right to look at the torque. So what is the torque on a dipole aligned with a field?
 
0
 
Correct.
the other force originates from having a dipole in a non-uniform field.
Specifically the field has to be non-uniform in the direction the dipole is pointing. If you imagine the dipole as a pair of equal and opposite charges then the force arises because the field is slightly greater at one charge then the other.
In this case the field from the wire is symmetric about the plane of the paper i.e. the field at the same distance above and below the plane of the paper is the same.
And the dipole points normal to the plane of the paper, so the forces on the two ends of the dipole will be equal.
 
10:57 AM
Yes.
How does it experience net force then?
 
So this type of force is also zero.
So in the question the force on the ring is zero.
 
No, it's not...
3rd option is the answer.
 
Ah, I oversimplified a bit. The ring isn't exactly a dipole.
 
Yeah, part closer to infinite wire will experience greater force, so there should be a net force..
But idk the approach properly.
 
The field from the wire is proportional to $1/d$ so $B = k/d$ for some constant $k$ that we aren't worried about.
So for the left side of the coil $dF = kI/(d - a) dL$ and for the right side of the coil $dF = kI/(d + a) dL$
But this leading towards option 4 not 3 ...
 
11:10 AM
@JohnRennie I just saw a solution online.
They used mdB/dr for force
where m is magnetic moment
 
$m$ is the dipole moment of the coil?
 
But idk how that formula is derived.
@JohnRennie Yeh, magnetic dipole moment.
 
OK, I think I see how that is derived.
I think with the currents shown the dipole is aligned with the field. That is the dipole and the field point in the same direction, and that's the high energy alignment. The low energy alignment is the field and dipole pointing in opposite directions. OK so far?
 
@AdvilSell I never saw this formula while studying, is this a standard one?
High energy alignment? you mean unstable equilibrium?
 
@Dante yes
 
11:17 AM
Umm, how? Looks like stable equilibrium to me.
 
@Dante Out of the two possible alignments parallel to the field one is stable and the other unstable. Yes?
 
yes
 
And the energy difference between the two alignments is $2Bp$, where $B$ is the field and $p$ is the dipole moment.
@Dante OK so far?
 
Is it different for magnetic dipole?
 
Oops, yes, I got the diagrams the wrong way round.
Suppose the dipole is in the high energy alignment so the energy is $E = 2Bp$
And suppose the field varies like this:
If you move the dipole left then you're moving it into a region of higher field so the energy increases. The increase in the energy is $dE = 2p dB$
If the energy increases when you move it left then you must have done some work to move it left i.e. you had to apply a force to move it left.
The work you did moving it a distance $dx$ is $F dx$ so $dE = F dx$ so $F dx = 2p dB$
And that gives $F = 2p\frac{dB}{dx}$
22 mins ago, by Dante
They used mdB/dr for force
That's where the equation for the force you saw in the solution comes from.
(I think)
 
11:34 AM
@JohnRennie I got it.
Thanks
 
I have to go now. I may be around later - not sure.
 
ok
 
 
2 hours later…
1:55 PM
Here maximum electric field is √2E na, because in the initial formula E is E_rms.
Got that ^
 
 
1 hour later…
3:33 PM
@AdvilSell
 
@Abcd yup ?
 
@AdvilSell Q 10 of JEE M
 
>A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating with an angular frequency 10 rad/s. The
support of the pendulum starts oscillating up and down with a small angular frequency of
1 rad/s and an amplitude of 10–2 m. The relative change in the angular frequency of the
pendulum is best given by:
@Abcd this one ?
 
@AdvilSell yh
 
@Abcd k , trying , a min.
WTF why this is so hard ...arghhh...
ahh...okay got it @Abcd
 
3:45 PM
@AdvilSell tell
 
see $\omega = \sqrt{g/l}$
now $\Delta \omega / \omega = 1/2 \Delta g / g$
 
@AdvilSell yh
 
now $\Delta g = \omega_1^2 \cdot A_1$
 
@AdvilSell ?????
 
@Abcd see the above support is oscillating and it's acceleration max. is the equation above and hence the change in acc. is the same
 
3:49 PM
@AdvilSell oh :( ... got it.
@AdvilSell you did it urself or understood from soln?
 
@Abcd did myself , took SOOOOOOO....much time
:(
 
@AdvilSell good
 
@Abcd Score?
 
@Dante Urs?
 
Ab count karuna.
 
3:54 PM
Count nd ping
 
-_-
 
@AdvilSell V simple one: 18
 
Send the key
 
@Dante Scroll 2 the bottom of the page
$40-f = ma$
 
Where?
 
3:55 PM
$(f+40)R = I\alpha $
 
yeah
 
Can;t find anything
 
$a = R \alpha $
 
Ah, understood
 
@AdvilSell these 3 dont give d right answer
try
 
3:56 PM
@Abcd huh...the equation are correct tho. , maybe a calculation mistake
 
@AdvilSell really they dont, just try 1ce
 
@Abcd what did you take I ??
 
$(80 - ma)R = I\alpha$
@AdvilSell $\dfrac{1}{2}MR^2$
or wait is it $MR^2$ :( ?
 
@Abcd HOLLOW cylinder
latter one
 
@AdvilSell Where did u practice Comm Sys from????
Too many modulation questions
 
4:03 PM
@Abcd DCP , I have just done DCP and nothing else in Comm. Sys.
Did you get the answer now ?
 
@AdvilSell are you able to do Q 22 in 2-3 minutes. Please try
 
@Abcd Not now , But it's a fairly straightforward question just formula based
 
@AdvilSell not now??
 
@Abcd I I will revise the formulae ( which I will do just the day before ) it's will be easy
 
@AdvilSell Is that same ques there in DCP
Ill attempt DCP right away if it is
 
4:08 PM
@Abcd Nope
yeah but the formula is
 
@AdvilSell i also kn the formula
 
@Abcd oh....okay
 
 
1 hour later…
5:23 PM
@JohnRennie Right, I get that part, but I'm not sure if the distance I should be taking should be from the point to the edge of the ring (In which case you'd have to take the hypotenuse of aright triangle) or if it's just the distance to the center of the ring.
 
 
6 hours later…
11:03 PM
@AdvilSell AITS FT 8 --- 1
 
Can you send QP ?
 
@AdvilSell See pprs room
 
Ya got it , downloading
@Abcd No Idea , now will see in morning again
 
@AdvilSell K
 
11:20 PM
@AdvilSell Q 4
See soln if you dont get it, and after seeing the soln tell me if you have read it ever?
 
@Abcd Not exactly , But I knew that stokes law is only valid for a infinite body of fluid , hence I would have marked correct ( I didn't knew that force will be increased I knew it will change )
 
@AdvilSell Where is this given man? I never read it.
 
@Abcd My physics teacher , told about the exceptions also stokes law is only valid for spherical objects
 
@AdvilSell thanks.
 
@Abcd cool , Good Night :D
 
11:26 PM
@AdvilSell GN
 

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