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03:26
@flawr That was a pretty sweet proof. Also, lol at her answer to the green screen question.
 
1 hour later…
 
3 hours later…
07:43
@El'endiaStarman I agree, the only nitpick I have: She did not show that you can triangulate every such shape by "small triangles".
@StackExchange tempted to flag as spam XD
Strangely in any lecture that I had so far where we used triangulations of some surface, nobody ever proved the existence of a triangulation.
It is probably just too cumbersome to do:)
 
3 hours later…
10:40
@NathanMerrill 1. yes. 2. by presenting a useful error message and requiring an explicit specification of the interface to be used (by cast or similar). 3. see 1. 4. see 2. 5. in that case you could consider going with the more specific overload.
 
3 hours later…
13:16
@MartinEnder 2. At compile time or run time? 4 Same question?
@NathanMerrill compile time
14:03
then, for #3, wouldn't it be a compile time error to even write func(val: A){} and func<T>(val: T)?
because the first function would never be callable
oh right, for that one I had assumed you were intending to interpret that as specialisation anyway
I mean, the other side is that you can determine all available methods at compile time, ensure that there will never be two methods with the same priority at compile time, and then at run-time, choose the method to call
so, for the above example, if you had a T that happened to also implement A, then it would call the A function
because T doesn't actually declare any interfaces, so it has a lower priority than A
14:25
Can I discuss a math problem?
absolutely
Ok
We know that a line is a collection of points arranged in a specific direction. Right?
Anyone?
I guess that's a way to look at it? Just go ahead. :)
Ok. Now number of points on the line must be proportional to its length
Lets say the constant of proportionality = k
So No of points on a line , P= k L , where L is length of the line
Right?
What kind of points are we talking about here? Real numbers? If so, then I don't arguments of proportionality apply. Or do you just mean integers along the line? If so, then yes.
14:40
Ok. I want to know why arguments of proportionality don't apply
there's an infinite number of points on either line, and it's the same "kind of infinity"
would you say that there are twice as many integers than there are even integers?
Won't we?
Rather if we limit ourselves to a finite portion of the integer set
?
of course, if we're looking at a finite set then we get twice as many integers.
but not if we look at all of them.
because there's an obvious one-to-one mapping between the integers and the even integers: if I map each integer N to the integer 2N, then I've assigned each integer to a different even integer. so there can't be more integers than even integers.
you might want to read up on the cardinality of infinite sets and Hilbert's hotel (there's a good youtube video somewhere)
oh, there are two actually:
14:45
Isn't it cobclusive that there must be twice integers as to even numbers in any integer set, ofcouse we don't know the exact number.
Ok. I am reading the above messages. Wait.
infinity is weird. Trying to say that 2*infinity is greater than infinity doesn't really work
(By mapping you mean E=2*K ; where E is the image and K is the integer. Right?)
yeah, an injective function if that helps
Ok.. I was thinking that a Line segment of length 1m must contain exactly half the number of points as to a line segment of length 2m
Wait... Let me think.
not really. you can still find an injective function that maps each point in the first line to exactly one point in the second line, without leaving out any points in the longer line
14:52
Ok.. See
You agree that in a finite set of integers, the proportionality holds. Right?
yes
because there I can't find such an injective function
Lets consider a infinitesimal length., dl. You agree that it has finite number of points. Right?
is that a thing?
@NathanMerrill "is that a thing?" ?
like, there's no number next to 0
14:56
Yes.. It ever tends to 0. Hence it must have finite points.
there's no such thing as 0.00000000....0001
so, by "infinitesimal length" what do you mean?
*infinitely small
simply a really small length?
infinitely small is 0
if it's infinitely small, then it contains no points (or one point)
there is no length that contains exactly two points
14:58
It must have undetermined number, yet finite points. Isn't it?
We are never interested in that number of points it contains
no, if it has more than one point, it has an infinite number of points
because if it contains points X and Y, it also contains (X+Y)/2
It must not have one point. For sure.
if there is a line of length 0, then it is simply a point
15:01
And that would be exactly coincident with x and y
Won't it?
if your line only contains a single point, it contains exactly one point (not an unknown finite number of points, just one). if contains at least two points, it contains an infinite number of points, because you can always add the mean of two points to the set.
there is no way to have anything in between
(not with the usual definitions of real numbers and lines anyway)
There is a way of having. There must be a.
Because at such dl length, like that infinity, arithmetics don't apply
Same as infinite+infinite=2infinite
I think like that dl+dl=2dl also wont work
2*infinity = infinity
you should really watch the above videos
Yes. Similarly 2*dl=dp
*dl
Isn't it?
I still don't think that an infinitely small line is a thing.
its just a point.
15:06
@NathanMerrill but then you would be violating concept of differentials
(Although I never meant inf+inf=2*inf, I should have been more clear with my expression in that statement)
@MadhuchhandaMandal what concept of differentials?
That integrating (dl) you would get length l
Would it hold had dl been a point?
infinitesimals are not actual objects you can treat like that. they are limits.
in particular, an infinitesimal length dl is the limit of ever smaller finite lengths delta-l. but each of those lengths that tend towards the limit have an infinite number of points in them but an ever smaller length that tends to zero.
Yes that's what I am saying. Won't it contain limited no of points?
Hmm... I understand.
But wgazt
actually I think what I said isn't even quite right yet. because for infinitesimals you only take the limit after performing arithmetic on your delta-l.
which is why you can't treat them like any other finite length.
15:14
*But what is causing that contraction in length?
this is what gives them their special properties but it also means you can't apply the usual reasoning most of the time.
@MadhuchhandaMandal it's just a matter of definition.
no. We talk about approaching a length of 0, and despite the fact that the length of the line gets smaller, the number of points between those two endpoints are the same
I mean why the length is shortening?
because the endpoints are getting closer
15:16
because that's how we define a line
you have two end points
and the distance between them is the line length
consider the coastline paradox:
The coastline paradox is the counterintuitive observation that the coastline of a landmass does not have a well-defined length. This results from the fractal-like properties of coastlines. The first recorded observation of this phenomenon was by Lewis Fry Richardson and it was expanded by Benoit Mandelbrot. More concretely, the length of the coastline depends on the method used to measure it. Since a landmass has features at all scales, from hundreds of kilometers in size to tiny fractions of a millimeter and below, there is no obvious size of the smallest feature that should be measured around...
depending how you measure the coastline, you can get lengths that are absolutely massive
I kinda understand
But now I don't understand what's dl
I used to think of it like this : it's an ever decreasing length (which one can never achieve), having exactly undetermined number of finite points
differentials/infinitesimals are very subtle concepts. the way they are defined, they are just a shorthand notation for inserting a value delta-x, and then after performing some arithmetic (usually a differentiation for derivatives or a sum for integrals) we take the limit of delta-x going to zero.
But wait... how would you get that x and y in dl?
my point is, dl itself is not a real "thing"
it's a notation
I also don't claim it to be real
It's notation of course
15:25
you still seem to think of it as an object that you can just work with like a finite (or zero) length
No I never
That's why I thought that it may contain finite points
No I never
Because def. of line don't hold good there
But its also right that if it has finite points, then def of point must hold good and hence it must contain infinite points
when you write df/dx, there is no infinitely short line dx involved. this is a convenient notation for lim(delta-x -> 0) (f(x + delta-x) - f(x)) / delta-x ... in this equation there is no infinitely short line. there is a finite line delta-x (which contains infinitely many points), and we're looking at a sequence of such expressions with ever-shortening delta-x.
an infinitely short line doesn't really enter into it. that's a simplification that works as a first explanation for infinitesimals, but it doesn't really hold up to any formal properties, because that's not how it's defined.
@MartinEnder well, I never meant that dx to be infinite small length. I was considering a infinitesimal length on our line of length l , to be dl
That dx is a infinitesimal change in x I suppose
But now I conclude something like this : As point is something like infinity packed into finite (line) , hence though it may seem to be proportional , proportionality don't hold. Right?
But wait. @NathanMerrill if dl is a point, then proportionality must hold.
Hence dl can't be a point
It must be a infinitesimal lengthed line with infinite points
Is anyone there?
15:43
my point is that dx (or dl) is neither a point nor a line. it's an entirely different concept, that you can in some contexts treat like a very short line but in practice it obeys completely different rules.
I'm not even sure whether the cardinality of it is well-defined, but if I had to guess then I'd say, yes it contains infinitely many points and has length zero.
Length tending to 0
It must obey rules of line... Otherwise you can't claim it to be composed of infinite points
Rather I think concept of point is not well defined
@MadhuchhandaMandal I'm pretty sure it is :)
*concept of point in the context of line
(i.e line is composed of points)
a line is really a set of points. a (degenerate) line of length zero contains exactly one point. it's like the difference between x and {x}.
If that degenerate case of line can be considered to be line at all
Because def. of line claims that it must have two endpoints
15:56
that's right, you can define your line segments to require two different endpoints
But that again abstracts the concept of point
Because if line is collection of point then at some length it must have finite collection but we just proved that such length is not possible
"at some point it must have finite collection" <-- I still don't understand how you arrive at that conclusion
Because removing elements from a collection , we must achieve another collection, and at some point we are bound to get a finite lengthed collection. Aren't we?
But we just proved that such collection don't exist
16:03
@MadhuchhandaMandal no, why would we? start from the natural numbers. repeatedly remove the smallest integer from the set. you'll never end up with a finite collection. there are always infinitely many values left.
there is no smooth transition from finite to infinite
Ok so tell : What would happen if we remove 50 points from a collection
?
Does the collection remains same?
from an infinite collection? we still have an infinite collection.
no it's a different collection, but still an infinite one.
with the same cardinality.
Has the line changed?
Has it's length changed?
I guess if you remove exactly 50 points, then you won't have a line any longer, because it's impossible to remove them "from one end"
you'd have to remove 50 individiual points which would break up the line into multiple segments.
That's exactly what making me conclude a line can't be collection of points
16:08
why not?
Is a collection not contain what it is composed of?
of course it is. the problem isn't that it doesn't contain those 50 points. the problem is that there are no 50 adjacent points. what are the 50 smallest numbers greater than 1? the question doesn't make sense because there is no smallest number greater than one. whenever you talk about a contiguous range on the real line, you've immediately got infinitely many points.
Lets insert a,b,c... To a collection. Don't you agree the collection contains a,b,c
if you talk about a finite number of points, there will always be other points between then.
you can remove 50 points from a line, but they won't be "next to each other", so this is no different from taking the points 1, 3 and 5 out of the line from 0 to 6. what you end up with is not a line, because it has gaps.
(gaps of length 0)
That's exactly exactly what making me feel that concept of relationship between line and points is not defined.. Atleast not as a collection
I understand what you are implying
But try to think what I am saying
16:12
since I still don't see how you make that leap, I think the problem is still in the understanding of various concepts of infinity and cardinality
I think in a collection element 1 and element 2 need not have any relationship
(I don't know much, rather nothing in these concepts, but I am saying what my logic says)
if by "collection" you mean set then yes that's right. but when we start to talk about lines then we are talking about special sets with geometrical meaning.
By collection I thought you meant set only
Ok. So you say line is not a normal set of points. (I was told so from the first day of my birth..) Ok then I think there is a long way for me to go before I understand that special set.
no, a line is just a set of points (although since our objects are points, clearly there's some geometrical relationship between them). however, not every set of points is a line. so if you take a line...and then you add or remove points, you get a different set. and there's no reason a priori why that new set should still be a line.
that is what I meant by "special sets": they are (normal) sets with specific properties (in this case, the property that they contain all the points between two endpoints... if a set does not have this property, it's not a line).
If its a set, then it must have last element, last to last element (though undetermined), last to last to last element... Wont it??
16:23
no
the natural numbers are a set. what's their last element?
Natural number within a finite limit does contain last element
the natural numbers with a finite limit are not an infinite set
Natural->Real
16:27
okay, let's look at the set of real numbers x with 0<x<1
what's the last element of this set?
Real set of numbers within finite limit does contain last element
no it doesn't
[0,1] first element 0, last element 1
?
okay, fine if you include the endpoints
then what's the second-to-last element?
And as a line is between two fixed points so it would be (0,1) not [0,1]
Sorry
[0,1] not (0,1)
Ok dinner time... Back within 10 minutes
16:37
I'm heading out. might be able to talk again later, but I really recommend you try reading up on infinity, cardinality and the real line a bit. I'm sure there are some good introductory examples online somewhere.
Ok I will
But it seems me to be counterintuitive to think that there cannot be any last to last element in a collection. It might be undermined. But I think it must exist.
*undetermined
By the way thank you very much for your patience and interest
 
2 hours later…
18:51
@MadhuchhandaMandal no it's not undetermined, it really does not exist. assume there is a largest number x < 1. now consider y = (x+1)/2. we have x < y < 1/2 which is a direct contradiction to "x is the largest number less than 1". so our initial assumption that such an element exists must be wrong.
this is really no different from saying that there is no largest number (in general).
if there was a largest number x < 1, then 1/(1-x) would be "the largest number".
19:27
@El'endiaStarman I just got a book that you might enjoy too! It is the magic of mc escher (there are various editions). It is a large collection of his prints but it also contains sketches where you can see how he developed some of his works. There is not too much text (a few anectodes and quotations).
Might make a great gift (for someone else or for youself=)

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